How was Jesus (‘Eesaa) pbuh created?

[sandra canada]

How was Jesus (‘Eesaa) pbuh created?​

Allaah commanded Jibreel ( Gabriel) to blow through the neck of Maryam’s garment, and this breath went down and by the will of Allaah entered her womb, so it became a soul that Allaah had created. Allaah has explained how He created ‘Eesaa (peace be upon him), as He said (interpretation of the meaning):

“And she who guarded her chastity [Virgin Maryam (Mary)], We breathed into (the sleeves of) her (shirt or garment) [through Our Rooh — Jibreel (Gabriel)]” [al-Anbiya’ 21:91]

Then Allaah explains that the Rooh reached her womb, as Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“And Maryam (Mary), the daughter of ‘Imraan who guarded her chastity. And We breathed into (the sleeve of her shirt or her garment) through Our Rooh [i.e. Jibreel (Gabriel)]”. [al-Tahreem 66:12]

The aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“(The angel) said: ‘I am only a messenger from your Lord, (to announce) to you the gift of a righteous son’” [Maryam 19:19] – indicates that the one who blew into her was Jibreel, who does not do anything except by the command of Allaah.
Some commentaries have been narrated from some Mufassireen suggesting that her pregnancy lasted only a few seconds, but this is not clearly indicated by the texts. If that had been the case, it would have been a miracle in and of itself: people would have accepted that this was not a normal pregnancy as experienced by women, and they would not have accused her of fornication, as they said (interpretation of the meaning):

“O Mary! Indeed you have brought a thing Fariyy (a mighty thing)” [Maryam 19:27]

There follow comments on this matter from two of the great Mufassireen, one from the past – Ibn Katheer, may Allaah have mercy on him, and one from more recent times – al-Shanqeeti, may Allaah have mercy on him.Imaam Ibn Katheer, may Allaah have mercy on him, said:
The Mufassireen differed as to the length of time (Maryam was) pregnant with ‘Eesaa (peace be upon him). The best known view of the majority is that she carried him for nine months… Ibn Jurayj said: al-Mugheerah told me, from ‘Utbah ibn ‘Abd-Allaah al-Thaqafi, that he heard Ibn ‘Abbaas being asked about the pregnancy of Maryam, and he said: no sooner had she conceived him then she gave birth!

This is strange (ghareeb), and it was based on what might be the apparent meaning of the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“So she conceived him, and she withdrew with him to a far place. And the pains of childbirth drove her to the trunk of a date palm” [Maryam 19:22].
The prefix “fa” here [in the phrase fa ajaa’ahaa al- makhaad - And the pains of childbirth drove her] indicates a succession of events, but things follow one another according to their own merits and characteristics, as in the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“And indeed We created man (Adam) out of an extract of clay (water and earth). Thereafter We made him (the offspring of Adam) as a Nutfah (mixed drops of the male and female sexual discharge and lodged it) in a safe lodging (womb of the woman). Then We made the Nutfah into a clot (a piece of thick coagulated blood), then We made the clot into a little lump of flesh, then We made out of that little lump of flesh bones” [al-Mu’minoon 23:12]

Here the fa’ [translated as ‘then’] implies a succession of events according to their own merits and characteristics. It was reported in al-Saheehayn (al-Bukhaari, 3208, Muslim, 2643) that “between each stage there are forty days.”And Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):

“See you not that Allaah sends down water (rain) from the sky, and then [fa’] the earth becomes green?” [al-Hajj 22:63].

The apparent meaning – although Allaah is able to do all things – is that her pregnancy was like that of other women… When Maryam felt that her people were becoming suspicious about her, she hid herself away from them “[in] a far place” [Maryam 19:22], i.e. far away so that she would not see them and they would not see her… she hid away from them and “placed a screen (to screen herself) from them” [Maryam 19:17 – interpretation of the meaning]. So no one could see her and she could not see anyone else. (Tafseer Ibn Katheer, 3/122).Shaykh al-Shanqeeti (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:

We will not mention all the views of the scholars concerning the length of time Maryam carried ‘Eesaa (peace be upon him), because of the lack of evidence (daleel) for these views. The strongest opinion is that her pregnancy was like that of other women, even though its beginning was miraculous. And Allaah knows best. (Adwaa’ al-Bayaan, 4/264)

Some ignorant people interpret the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“So when I have fashioned him and breathed into him (his) soul created by Me” [Saad 38:72] as meaning that the Messiah was a part of the spirit of Allaah!

[The original Arabic says min roohi, lit. ‘of My spirit’]

Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) explained that this interpretation is misguided, as he said:

With regard to the misinterpretation of the genitive (or possessive) construction [idaafah] in the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):

“So when I have fashioned him and breathed into him (his) soul created by Me [min roohi, lit. ‘of My spirit’]” [Saad 38:72] – it should be known that when this construction appears in conjunction with the name of Allaah, may He be glorified, it may be one of two types:(The first) is qualities that cannot stand alone, such as knowledge, power, words, hearing, sight. Here the attribute is attached in a genitive construction (idaafah) to the One Who is described in this manner. So His knowledge, His words, His will, His power, His life are all attributes or qualities which are not created (because this refers to His Essence); the same applies to His Face and His Hand, may He be glorified.

The second kind are things which exist separately and are mentioned in idaafah (genitive construction), such as (His) house, (His) she-camel, (His) slave, (His) Messenger, (His) spirit. Here the created thing is connected by the genitive construction to its Creator, but in this case the idaafah implies that the thing mentioned is special and is honoured, and is thus distinguished from other things. For example, the House of Allaah [meaning the Ka’bah] – although all houses belong to Allaah – and the she-camel of Allaah – although all camels belong to Allaah and are created by Him. This idaafah is connected to the idea of His Divinity (uloohiyah), which implies that he loves and honours the thing so described. In contrast, idaafah in the general sense has to do with His Lordship (ruboobiyyah), which implies that He created and formed it. So the general kind of idaafah implies that He is the Creator of that thing, whilst the specific kind of idaafah implies that Allaah has chosen that thing. Allaah creates what He wills and chooses some of His creation, as He says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And your Lord creates whatsoever He wills and chooses” [al-Qasas 28:68]

So in this case – the phrase min roohi (lit. ‘of My spirit’), the idaafah (genitive construction) is of the specific type, not the general type, and it does not refer to the attributes of Allaah. Think about this matter, for it will save you from the many errors into which people have fallen by the will of Allaah.

(al-Rooh, p. 154, 155)

In conclusion, the description of ‘Eesaa (peace be upon him) as the spirit (rooh) of Allaah is by way of honouring him. This idaafah (whereby the word rooh (spirit) is connected in a genitive construction to the Name of Allaah) does not serve to ascribe an attribute to the One Who is so described, as is the case in the phrases “the hand of Allaah”, “the Face of Allaah.” On the contrary, it connects the created being in a genitive construction to the Creator, as the Ka’bah is described as the House of Allaah, and the she-camel – which was the miracle that Allaah gave to His Prophet Saalih (peace be upon him) – was described as the she-camel of Allaah.

What remains to prove the creativity of God in creation?
Adam = has no father and no mother
Eve = has father and no mother

​

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Perhaps some people said that God unable to create a human from only a mother
So jesus WAS created to complete the Creativity of God in Creation
Jesus = has no father and has mother ​

Allah said
Al-E-Imran 59
This similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam: He created him from dust, then said to him: "Be" and he was. (59)

And Allaah knows best.

 

[abdul hai]

Salam, jaza kallah kairan for this post.

 

[Proud_2b_Muslim]

:salam2:
thanks for sharing , jazak Allah khayran insha`Allah

 

[sandra canada]

Salam, jaza kallah kairan for this post.

jazak Allah khayran brother May ALLAH ENTER YOU JANNAH AMEEN

 

[sandra canada]

:salam2:
thanks for sharing , jazak Allah khayran insha`Allah

jazak Allah khayran brother May ALLAH ENTER YOU JANNAH AMEEN

 

[abu turaab]

:salam2: Eve=has father and no mother!!...how is that?
how can Adam be husband and father of Eve at the same time??....isn't that Eve has no father and no mother like Adam yet she's created from the mud off adam's ribs...ALLAH (s.w.t.) created her just like He created Adam with his hands!! may peace,mercy and blessings of ALLAH (s.w.t.) be on both of them!!...what do you say sister?

 

[sandra canada]

:salam2: Eve=has father and no mother!!...how is that?
how can Adam be husband and father of Eve at the same time??....isn't that Eve has no father and no mother like Adam yet she's created from the mud off adam's ribs...ALLAH (s.w.t.) created her just like He created Adam with his hands!! may peace,mercy and blessings of ALLAH (s.w.t.) be on both of them!!...what do you say sister?

yes brother thats not contradict my words

thanks brother for ur comment
Eve has created from a Adam ribs
Adam is like her father (human)
exactly like how shall their son Habil marry his sister? the same what i meant with Adam and Eve
i post this thread for a christian friend who i show him how was jesus created!
Adam has no father and no mother
Eve has father no mother She was created from his ribs as if he is her father
Jesus has no father and has mother

 

[abu turaab]

:salam2:thanx for clearing me!!...so it can be that for every couple(married one) for a man besides being a husband,he's also like a father(in terms of providing for her) to his wife!!...isn't it?...and as Eve was created from the ribs close to the heart.....thats why man loves and cares his wife more and for these reason it's said (Hadith) for wives that..."had it be permissible for anyone to prostrate for someone...i would have ordered wives to prostrate for their husbands".(Bukhari)

 

[hellbraker]

Hy Sandra
A concerning question from me

Why did Jesus he was "the son of man"?

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man?

 

[Mohsin]

Hy Sandra
A concerning question from me

Why did Jesus he was "the son of man"?

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man?

I think you should change the question a bit and say why did you call him Son of God when he called him a son of man not once, twice but 88 times !

P.S. According to the Bible, son of God means a righteous man and the emphasis that Jesus was Son of God was there amongst the earlier ones might be due to the fact that many people who did not like him used to call him an evil man, a sorceror and someone who is leading them astray. So to put the emphasis that Jesus was not evil but a pious man, a righteous servant of God, a messenger of God Almighty his follower called him son of God in the Hebrew or Jewish sense and not in the Roman or Greek sense.
I remember a scholar saying very wise words about this issue that the sole problem with this is that people are seeing the Jewish scriptures with Greek glasses on.

 

[hellbraker]

I call him the Son of God because its written in the Bible.For example:

Mark 1
This is the good news about Jesus Christ, the Son of God

or when John saw Jesus and the the Holy Spirit coming down and when he hears a voice from heaven mentioning Jesus as the Son

Mark 11
A voice from heaven said, "You are my own dear Son, and I am pleased with you."

For me the "Son" does not mean that God had a sexual relation with someone and then gave birth to a son.For example Thales of Miletus is cosidered as the father of science,this does not mean any sexual intention by calling him "father".

Thank you
Peace be with you.

 

[Mohsin]

Peace be with you too,

Do you beleive the same about these people as well as similar things are written about them in the Bible.

Matthew 5:9
Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called sons of God.

Romans 8:14
because those who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God.

LUKE 3:38
'Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the SON OF GOD."

EXODUS 4:22
Thus- saith the Lord, Israel is MY SON even my FIRSTBORN."

PSALMS 2:7
Thou (o David) ART MY SON; this day have I (God) BEGOTTEN thee. "

JEREMIAH 31:9
and Ephraim is my FIRSTBORN,"

 

[hellbraker]

Thanks 4 the comment Brother
They all dont say any sexual relation.They all show that God calls someone "son" when he obeys God and does what he tells him to do and by loving Him.

People at Jesus' times had the same question.They wanted to know why did Jesus claimed to be God and why He calls himself Son Of God.For this he had an answer which i would like to show you.

John 10:33-36

(33)They answered, "We are not stoning you because of any good thing you did. We are stoning you because you did a terrible thing. You are just a man, and here you are claiming to be God!"


(34)Jesus replied:

In your Scriptures doesn't God say, "You are gods"? (35)You can't argue with the Scriptures, and God spoke to those people and called them gods. (36)So why do you accuse me of a terrible sin for saying that I am the Son of God? After all, it is the Father who prepared me for this work. He is also the one who sent me into the world.

For me the reason why Jesus calls him the Son of God is because he is the descendant of Adam(which is a man) as one can see from Luke 23-38 where Luke tells us the ancestors of Jesus.But still I may be wrong and u may b right,but still,this is what i think and believe.

Peace be with u

 

[sandra canada]

Hy Sandra
A concerning question from me

Why did Jesus he was "the son of man"?

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man?

its so strange u answering your self jesus sayi i am the son of man

and he meant that he is a Man like Adam and Eve and not son of god


Abour son of God visit this thread u seem forget it

Son of God" is the same as "Servant of God" in Hebrew
:shymuslima1:
http://www.turntoislam.com/forum/showthread.php?t=36851

if you really love jesus then you have to belive on what he say

john 17:3
And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast

Revelation 22:9
Then saith he unto me, See thou do it not: for I am thy fellowservant, and of thy brethren the prophets, and of them which keep the sayings of this book: worship God

Revelation 22:9 (English Standard Version)
English Standard Version (ESV)

but he said to me, "You must not do that! I am a fellow servant[a] with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those(B) who keep the words of this book. Worship God

Mark 12:32 (King James Version)
And the scribe said unto him, Well, Master, thou hast said the truth: for there is one God; and there is none other but he:


john 4:23

23But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.


matthew 7:22
22Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?

matthew 7:21
21Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


John 5:30
I can do nothing on My own initiative As I hear, I judge; and (B)My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but (C)the will of Him who sent Me

Matthew 19:26
And looking at them Jesus said to them, "(A)With people this is impossible, but with God all things are possible."

mark 10:17
And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?

18And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.

John 7:16
Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.
17If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself
18He that speaketh of himself seeketh his own glory: but he that seeketh his glory that sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him.

john 8:40
But now ye seek to kill me, a man that hath told you the truth, which I have heard of God: this did not Abraham.
a man
a man
a man


Acts 2:22
Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:

a man
a man
a man

Matthew 23:8
But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ; and all ye are brethren
9And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven
one is your Father
one is your Father
one is your Father

10 Neither be ye called masters: for one is your Master, even Christ

mark 9:12
Jesus replied, "To be sure, Elijah does come first, and restores all things. Why then is it written that the Son of Man must suffer much and be rejected?


So prophet jesus pbuh said i am a prophet and he was sent


i want you answer this 7 questionsi want you go to the nearest church and ask them this questions

Where in the bible did Jesus claim to be god?
Where in the bible did Jesus ask to be worshipped?
Where did Jesus say I am God Manifested in flesh?
Where did Jesus mention the original sin?
Where did Jesus say I am the God the Son?
Where did Jesus say that I am God the Word?
Where did Jesus say I am the Second God in Trinity?

i'll wait for the answers​

 

[hellbraker]

Yes sister Sandra,I know Im strange..i think I dont kno anything..and what i do know seems wrong..heee!

This is not my thinking,i hav just found it in the web and would like to show u.

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. A first meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.

A second meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." Yes, Jesus was the Son of God – He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man – He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.

For me Jesus is the best teacher,the best prophet( a new Moses like),the only sinless "man",the faithful witness,the Savior,the Lord , ,God'son (even evil spirits called him Son of God as in Luke 4:41,).

I love Jesus and I believe what he said.In John 14:9-12,He said he is one with the Father and the Father is one with him,What does that mean??Is he not saying that he is equal to God?He says that if anyone has seen him,that person has seen the Father.What does this mean,Please answer as I dont know.What was he talking about?
He is saviour to me because He said he came to save the world as in John 12:47-"I am not the one who will judge those who refuse to obey my teachings. I came to save the people of this world, not to be their judge.
Jesus is a teacher and the Lord for me because He said to call him both "teacher" and"Lord" as in John 13-"You call me your teacher and Lord, and you should, because that is who I am."What did he meant by saying that one should call him Lord?

You quoted John 17:3.Good! Now see John 17:4-5
"I have brought glory to you here on earth by doing everything you gave me to do.(5)Now, Father, give me back the glory that I had with you before the world was created."What does this mean?He just said He was present even before the world was created.What was he thinking?Please answer as I dont know.

Revelation 22:9->This is not said by Jesus,its said by one of the angels.

Mark 12:32->This is what I believe,that there is only one God and that we must love God with all our heart and all our mind and strength,and that we must love others as much as we love ourselves.

John 4:23->Same here.I believe in this Father,and Im one of his sinful child.

Matthew 7:22->This to me seems that Jesus was talking about people who are good outside{show offs} but bad inside.

John 5:30->This shows how humble and meek Jesus was.He is not praising himself,instead he is keeping a low profile as seen in Matthew 11:28-30

Matthew 19:26->Yes God is omnipotent.

mark 10:17->Some call him Master,Some call him Rabbi,some call him Messiah,some call him teacher,He himself calls him Son as in John 3:34,and He was even called Son of God,he even was called Lord.

John 7:16->Jesus says that whatever he teaches or says is not from himself but from God.This shows that he is never wrong and whatever he said is dependable.

john 8:40->Yes he said he is man,then why did he say he is one with the Father?

Matthew 23:8->Jesus was talking about the Pharisees.He is saying that it is not them to be called as a teacher/rabbi but they have only one teacher and one Father.

mark 9:12-> This shows that He himself is the Son of Man.When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself.(Daniel 7:13-14)

Remember,whatever he said,its from God and this can't be wrong.He even said he wants the same honour as one honours the Father(God) and said that when anyone refuses to honour the Son,it is the same as refusing to honour the Father who sent him.(John 5:23)

That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.





The answer to question one is in John 10:27-36 where Jesus claims to be God by saying he is one with the Father.

The answer to the second question is in John 5:23 where he says that He needs respect/honour as same or as much as God Himself.

As for the rest of you questions its either "no" or "I dont know" (as Im not good in these)

Thank u
Peace be with u

 

[sandra canada]

YOU DIDNT ANSWER ANY QUESTION AT ALL HELLBRAKER

WHERE ARE THE ANSWERS? AND WAS JESUS SINLESS?
SORRY FOR BEING LATE TO REPLY BUT I SWEAR I REALLY BUSY

 

[hellbraker]

Thank you my Sister
I answered the first two questions (from best of my knowledge),the rest as I said,I dont know or the answer is "No".
Peace be with You

 

[Zaynab123]

asalamu alaykum,

jazak Allahu khayra for the nice post

wa alaykum salam

 

[amirah80]

:salam2:

Jazak Allah khair Sandra.

Salam Amirah80

 

[sandra canada]

Yes sister Sandra,I know Im strange..i think I dont kno anything..and what i do know seems wrong..heee!

This is not my thinking,i hav just found it in the web and would like to show u.

Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. A first meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.

A second meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." Yes, Jesus was the Son of God – He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man – He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.

For me Jesus is the best teacher,the best prophet( a new Moses like),the only sinless "man",the faithful witness,the Savior,the Lord , ,God'son (even evil spirits called him Son of God as in Luke 4:41,).

I love Jesus and I believe what he said.In John 14:9-12,He said he is one with the Father and the Father is one with him,What does that mean??Is he not saying that he is equal to God?He says that if anyone has seen him,that person has seen the Father.What does this mean,Please answer as I dont know.What was he talking about?
He is saviour to me because He said he came to save the world as in John 12:47-"I am not the one who will judge those who refuse to obey my teachings. I came to save the people of this world, not to be their judge.
Jesus is a teacher and the Lord for me because He said to call him both "teacher" and"Lord" as in John 13-"You call me your teacher and Lord, and you should, because that is who I am."What did he meant by saying that one should call him Lord?

You quoted John 17:3.Good! Now see John 17:4-5
"I have brought glory to you here on earth by doing everything you gave me to do.(5)Now, Father, give me back the glory that I had with you before the world was created."What does this mean?He just said He was present even before the world was created.What was he thinking?Please answer as I dont know.

Revelation 22:9->This is not said by Jesus,its said by one of the angels.

Mark 12:32->This is what I believe,that there is only one God and that we must love God with all our heart and all our mind and strength,and that we must love others as much as we love ourselves.

John 4:23->Same here.I believe in this Father,and Im one of his sinful child.

Matthew 7:22->This to me seems that Jesus was talking about people who are good outside{show offs} but bad inside.

John 5:30->This shows how humble and meek Jesus was.He is not praising himself,instead he is keeping a low profile as seen in Matthew 11:28-30

Matthew 19:26->Yes God is omnipotent.

mark 10:17->Some call him Master,Some call him Rabbi,some call him Messiah,some call him teacher,He himself calls him Son as in John 3:34,and He was even called Son of God,he even was called Lord.

John 7:16->Jesus says that whatever he teaches or says is not from himself but from God.This shows that he is never wrong and whatever he said is dependable.

john 8:40->Yes he said he is man,then why did he say he is one with the Father?

Matthew 23:8->Jesus was talking about the Pharisees.He is saying that it is not them to be called as a teacher/rabbi but they have only one teacher and one Father.

mark 9:12-> This shows that He himself is the Son of Man.When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself.(Daniel 7:13-14)

Remember,whatever he said,its from God and this can't be wrong.He even said he wants the same honour as one honours the Father(God) and said that when anyone refuses to honour the Son,it is the same as refusing to honour the Father who sent him.(John 5:23)

That all men should honour the Son, even as they honour the Father. He that honoureth not the Son honoureth not the Father which hath sent him.





The answer to question one is in John 10:27-36 where Jesus claims to be God by saying he is one with the Father.

The answer to the second question is in John 5:23 where he says that He needs respect/honour as same or as much as God Himself.

As for the rest of you questions its either "no" or "I dont know" (as Im not good in these)

Thank u
Peace be with u

I am just back peace be upon you Hellbraker


we ALL LOVE JESUS BUT WHO FOLLOW THE RIGHT JESUS? THATS V IMPORTANT
POINT..............!

According to Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came ..............................................
like?like?
like?
and vision that so strange hellbraker
of course that not a prove at all



Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son
like ? like ? like ?
Do u know the meaning of like? its a sumption may be there or not

According to (Jesus was fully God (John 1:1),................................
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God



First: the text clearly indicates the invalidity of TriNITY
simply because when it strart by "in the begining" means starting the eternal


Jesus was fully God (John 1:1) where you got this idea from?

First: the verse clearly indicates the invalidity of TriNITY
simply because when it strart by "in the begining" means starting the eternal because there wasn't a holy spirit?
where was the holy spirit?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:1

he says in the beginning ........ Any begin this? ... Does God have time limits ... How can God begin and End??? God is not limited to something ... No date nor venue ... None of the so-called begin on God Almighty and the Almighty. Then he says, "When God was" ... What does it mean when ??... How are to begin on God ... And Does not this mean that God is an advanced degree from the floor as evinced there. And how to become a floor is God and he is ?????



He says in the begining ........ Any begining this ... Does God have time limits ... How to start and be on God??? God is not limited to something ... No date nor venue ... None of the so-called start on God Almighty and the Almighty. And then he says, "When God was" ... Any concerned when he begin... And how are begining on God ... If not, this means that God is an advanced degree from the Word as evinced there. And how the word is becoming God,???????.
The Word "In the Beginning" it could be "Eternal Beginning" or it Brook another Meaning like what was in Genesis 1:1 In Beginning of creatures not Begininng of Eternal

In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.
Genesis 1:1
Matthew 19:8
He said to them, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
beginning here means beginning of marriage not begining of eternal
the same
john 6:64
john 8:44
1john 2:5



secound

Joh 1:1 ¶ the Word was God.

john 1:14And the Word was made flesh

That lead to that The body is God
Then that leads to The accusation by torturing and Toughing died on the cross was God
And this is not proper to say in the right God such a things like that cause he is Perfect in everything
But something strange in this verse to the Word .... it became an independent entity God ........ This perception demonizing ... Totally irrational ... And the only acceptable and discourage inacceptable to any mind

If the Word is a belief in God as ... And then the Word became a body ... This means a change in the image of God ... The problem is that the Bible says that God does not change Malachi 3 : 6 ... A very big problem this text ... As you correctly understandable ..or. As correctly Malachi understandable
and where was the holy spirit in the beginning?

Did John wrote these words???? Who is John???

The British Chamber of knowledge proved that it was not John Apostle .. And that he was a follower of Paul wrote bob;e to prove the principle Paul .... (But this is not our point now)

And noted that (Word ) here did not explicitly refer to Mr. Christ ... Because this also needs to prove ... Because if we recognized that the word of God equal ... We need to prove that the word means Christ peace be upon him ... And nothing in the four Gospels .. The messages manual one that Christ referred to himself as the Word

The first three Gospels parallel did not refer to it at all in which luke said

Lu 1:1 ¶ Forasmuch as many have taken in hand to set forth in order a declaration of those things which are most surely believed among us

2 Even as they delivered them unto us, which from the beginning were eyewitnesses, and ministers of the word;
let see the true meaning of the Word ... May is the obstacle John that means the same meant by Luke


Jeremiah 10

Hear the word which the Lord speaks to you, O house of Israel. 2 Thus says the Lord: "Do not learn the way of the Gentiles; Do not be dismayed at the signs of heaven, For the Gentiles are dismayed at them
And meaning of the word here is clear .. Does not need to explain .. This is what Luke John the Baptist on the exact number 2 in 3: 2

Lu 3:2 Annas and Caiaphas being the high priests, the word of God came unto John the son of Zacharias in the wilderness.
most texts from the Gospel of Luke are all clearly indicates that the Word is inspired by God or divine order
Lu 4:36 And they were all amazed, and spake among themselves, saying, What a word is this! for with authority and power he commandeth the unclean spirits, and they come out.
Lu 5:1 And it came to pass, that, as the people pressed upon him to hear the word of God, he stood by the lake of Gennesaret,
Lu 7:7 Wherefore neither thought I myself worthy to come unto thee: but say in a word, and my servant shall be healed.
And Paul also said in Acts
Ac 4:4 Howbeit many of them which heard the word believed; and the number of the men was about five thousand
and he said too

Ac 6:7 And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied in Jerusalem greatly; and a great company of the priests were obedient to the faith.

And from these verses shows us clearly that the word from Luke and Paul , is divine revelation of God Almighty, and the amount through the prophet of worship

Is the one who wrote the Gospel of John follow the other three Gospels? And use the word (logos
) in the description of Christ's peace be upon him .. And had taken on foreign sources which is Greek philosophy in part to a Heathen
philosophers such as Greece philosopher Herakulaitts Allojus or the word is divine reason for the officer's movement of assets and dominates the universe ... This is taken by the Gospel writer John philosophical notion ... Which do not have any reference, not out of religious true ... But imagine pagan addition to the Gospel writer is more complicated.
Fourth: Warning this phrase as a disaster but a disaster How many word of God in this text?two

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New World Translation
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was divine"
An American Translation
In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine."
The New Testament, An American Translation, Edgar Goodspeed and J. M. Powis Smith, The University of Chicago Press, p. 173

to make it more clear we have to back to the original verses which in the greek

En arche en ho logos, kai ho logos en pros ton theon, kai theos en ho logos.
En arche en ho logos
In the beginning (there) was) the Word

kai ho logos en pros ton theon
and the Word was with the God

kai theos en ho logos
and god was the word.

For those who do not Greek, "Theos" is the word for God and appears twice as "Theon" and "Theos". In the first instance, "ton" is a definite article (thus, "The Word was THE God" ).

We find that the word of God first in the text tool to know what the definition equivalent to a thousand, mother and the second is not defined (Thieads (Greece, and here the problem that requires translation must be real "and the word machine" and not "The word of God" because the word (God) in the term book Bible - in general - does not necessarily mean God Idol right, but sometimes comes on the meaning of Mr. President or great meaning owners. And some subtitles so decided, such as translating the New World, which states:
The Greek word which means (God) is Idol is right: Hotheos Hotheos and when the machine-deserved cult, Greece had been using the word is another: Toncios Tontheos When translated the words John (The word of God) from the ancient Greek into English, the interpreters of the Bible using large trades in the translation of the words (and the word God)


While the existing Word is in the original Greek word (Tontheos) and not (Hotheos)
Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated 'the word was with the God =the Father, and the word was a divine being.'" The Dictionary of the Bible by John McKenzie, Collier Books, p. 317