sandra canada
Laa ilaha illa Allah
:salam2:
Young girls were married off to much older men in bible
Aside from the point that the Hadiths (Sayings of Prophet Muhammad) were literally written 100s of years after the death of Prophet Muhammad, his companions and all of the people during his days, which clearly by itself proves that the narrations that Sam Shamoun provided above are all doubtful and may very well be out of context or straight lies, but I will go ahead and assume that they are Truthful.
Prophet Muhammad committed no adultery or fornication with Aisha. She was his wife even before they consummated! The culture back then and still today in many parts of the world as we'll see shortly did allow for such marriage to take place.
The Bible too allowed for little girls being married off as well:
Exodus 21:7-11
7. "If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do. 8. "If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her.
9. "If he designates her for his son [Note: "his son" means that the master is either her father's age or even much older!], he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters.
10. "If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights.
11. "If he will not do these three things for her, then she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money. First of all, did the daughter have any choice to be sold off by her father, married off by her master to either himself or his son? No!
Also, the fact that the master can either marry her or marry her off to his son, means that MOST LIKELY, SHE IS HIS DAUGHTER'S AGE and younger than his son!! So he's probably at least 30+ years older than her. Yet, he himself (her father's age or even MUCH older) can marry her.
Strange things: Fathers sticking their fingers into their daughters' vaginas before marriage in the Bible.
Let us look at the following Verses in the Bible: "If a man takes a wife and, after laying with her, dislikes her and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, 'I married this woman but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,' then the girl's father and mother shall bring proof [how do you think they would do that?] that she was a virgin to the town elders at the gate. The girl's father will say to the elders, 'I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her. Now he has slandered her and said, 'I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.' But here is the proof of my daughter's virginity.' Then her parents shall display the cloth [the father would literally stick his two fingers covered with a piece of cloth into his daughter's vagina before she gets married and keep that bloody cloth for as long as his daughter is married] with before the elders of the town, and the elders shall take the man and punish him. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:13-18)"
Here is a more clear translation from Hebrew Resources: "The girl's father and mother shall produce the evidence of the girl's virginity before the elders of the town at the gate. And the girl's father shall say to the elders, "I gave this man my daughter to wife, but he had taken an aversion to her; so he has made up charges, saying, 'I did not find your daughter a virgin.' But here is the evidence of my daughter's virginity!" And they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. (From the New JPS translation, Deuteronomy 22:15-17)"
The New JPS translation of Deuteronomy 22:15-17 makes it even more clear about having the parents of the girl displaying the bloody piece of cloth before the elders of the town.
According to the Talmud, the cloth should be "A cloth of less than 3 square finger-breadths. (From the Talmud, Eruvin 29b-30a and Succah 16a)", and before it is being used, it should be "soft, woolen and clean. (From the Talmud, Niddah 17a)"
Also, the fact that there is no AGE LIMIT to how girls in the Bible were sold off and married off to other men, WITHOUT ANY CHOICE, who were much much older than them as also the case with the Biblical Prophets who married 100s of wives clearly proves the hypocrisy of some Christians who attack Islam through Aisha's very young age, while they clearly ignore the same fact in their own Bible. Here is a sample of the 100s of wives of the Biblical Prophets:
In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can marry.
In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.
In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.
In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines.
Even today, girls in many third-world countries are married off at the same or similar age. Also, it is believed by many Jews and Roman Catholics that Mary was 12 - 14 when she had Jesus. Also as I said, the Biblical Prophets who had 100s of wives each most probably married young girls as well.
Also, what about Aisha's PARENTS (MOM AND DAD)? Didn't they see it right and fit to marry their daughter at that age and at that time? Who are we to judge?
Fathers can sell their daughters as slave girls to other men in the Bible Fathers can sell their daughters as slave girls to other men in the Bible
Exodus 21:7-11
7. "If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do.
8. "If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her.
9. "If he designates her for his son [Note: "his son" means that the master is either her father's age or even much older!], he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters.
10. "If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights.
11. "If he will not do these three things for her, then she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money. First of all, did the daughter have any choice to be sold off by her father, married off by her master to either himself or his son? No!
Also, the fact that the master can either marry her or marry her off to his son, means that MOST LIKELY, SHE IS HIS DAUGHTER'S AGE and younger than his son!! So he's probably at least 30+ years older than her. Yet, he himself (her father's age or even MUCH older) can marry her.
Fathers have full control over their daughters
The thing that we all must know is that the father in the Bible has full control over his daughters. Let us look at few quotes from Talmudic and Biblical resources:
The father has the right to force their daughters into marriage: "The father has the obligation to marry off his daughters. (From the Talmud, Kiddushin 29a, 30b)", and "Marrying off one's daughter as soon after she reaches adulthood as possible, even to one's Slave. (From the Talmud, Pesachim 113a)"
The father even has the right to sell his daughter as a servant (slave girl) to other men: "If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. (From the NIV Bible, Exodus 21:7-8)"
There is even pre-arranged marriage before the child is even born!
People before they are even born are arranged for marriage: "A Divine Voice announces who a soon-to-be-born boy and girl will marry when they grow up. (From the Talmud, Moed Katan 18b, Sotah 2a, Moed Katan 18b and Moed Katan 18b)"
A The woman's virginity can be taken through a person's hands, a father's finger inside his daughter. As I showed above, "digital defloration" means inserting a finger or thumb into the woman's vagina.
I had some Christians raise high objections to this point, and some had even criticized me of being a "liar". Well, beside from the above references that clearly prove my point, if you still do not believe me then go and seek it among OLD MIDDLE EASTERN Jews for yourself. Also, using your own personal common sense, explain to me what the Bible means by "her parents shall display the cloth" and its relationship to the girl's virginity? If the husband is the one to take his wife's virginity through sexual intercourse, then what would having the girl's parents displaying "the cloth" have anything to do with it?
You might then think, then how would the husband be able to know whether his wife was ever touched by another man if her father took her virginity away from her before marriage?
The answer to this question is that some men can tell by instinct whether their wives had previous relationships before when they sleep with their wives. This however is very difficult and doesn't apply to all men, especially when their wives are good in faking it. In the old Jewish culture fathers were to take their daughters' virginity and must keep the bloody cloth for as long as their daughters were married as a solid proof.
That is why the Bible mentions "the cloth" and orders the parents to use it as a proof. Using your own common sense, the cloth would not be a clean one like anyone you have at home. It has to be a bloody one.
These laws however are not GOD Almighty's Laws, even though they are considered as such. These are old Jewish Laws that had corrupted the Bible:
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!
Why would fathers do that?
Back in the old Biblical days, if a girl commits fornication, she would bring a big shame to the family. The family would lose their reputation and respect in the town. That is why you see Biblical verses such as the following:
"And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father: she shall be burnt with fire. (From the NIV Bible, Leviticus 21:9)"
"...and the birth of ANY daughter is a loss. (From the New Jerusalem Bible, Ecclesiasticus 22:3)"
"Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a MALE child: then she shall be unclean SEVEN DAYS; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying THIRTY THREE days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. But if she bear a FEMALE child, then she shall be unclean TWO WEEKS, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying SIXTY SIX days. (From the NIV Bible, Leviticus 12:2-5)"
The entire Bible is corrupted anyway according to its Theologians!
The Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's alterations and corruptions:
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
And regarding who wrote the books and gospels of the Bible, well here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:
"Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark. They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark. His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost. (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"
"Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"
"The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"
"The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"
"It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"
"Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"
"The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"
"The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"
"Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"
"There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"
"Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"
"According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"
"Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"
"The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"
"Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"
etc...
How can you justify "digital defloration" to your sister or daughter?
As we've seen above, it was part of the old Jewish culture to do digital defloration (inserting a finger into the vagina) to women. Mary, the mother of Jesus, even got digitally deflowered herself! I'd like to ask all Jews and Christians this simple question:
How can you justify to your daughter or sister that it is Biblically and religiously OK to insert a (middle) finger (whether by male or female; it doesn't matter) into her vagina to take away her virginity?
I mean, beside the woman's husband, who should really have the authority to touch her in her private like that?
And also, could Jeremiah in Jeremiah 8:8 meant exactly this when he said that the Jews had so badly corrupted the Bible and turned it into a "lie"?
"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
As we've seen above, Deuteronomy 22:13-18 absolutely could not have referred to the husband covering his penis with the cloth and inserting it into his wife's vagina. The verse clearly talked about the cloth being in the parents' possession, and it clearly referred to having the evidence right before the wedding night.
So, could this digital defloration by the bride's relative (whether it is her father, mother, brother, sister, or what have you) be nothing but a ridiculous LIE that was put in GOD Almighty's Holy Mouth as a Revelation sent from Him as Jeremiah 8:8 above clearly suggests?
ISNEXT
]
Young girls were married off to much older men in bible
Aside from the point that the Hadiths (Sayings of Prophet Muhammad) were literally written 100s of years after the death of Prophet Muhammad, his companions and all of the people during his days, which clearly by itself proves that the narrations that Sam Shamoun provided above are all doubtful and may very well be out of context or straight lies, but I will go ahead and assume that they are Truthful.
Prophet Muhammad committed no adultery or fornication with Aisha. She was his wife even before they consummated! The culture back then and still today in many parts of the world as we'll see shortly did allow for such marriage to take place.
The Bible too allowed for little girls being married off as well:
Exodus 21:7-11
7. "If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do. 8. "If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her.
9. "If he designates her for his son [Note: "his son" means that the master is either her father's age or even much older!], he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters.
10. "If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights.
11. "If he will not do these three things for her, then she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money. First of all, did the daughter have any choice to be sold off by her father, married off by her master to either himself or his son? No!
Also, the fact that the master can either marry her or marry her off to his son, means that MOST LIKELY, SHE IS HIS DAUGHTER'S AGE and younger than his son!! So he's probably at least 30+ years older than her. Yet, he himself (her father's age or even MUCH older) can marry her.
Strange things: Fathers sticking their fingers into their daughters' vaginas before marriage in the Bible.
Let us look at the following Verses in the Bible: "If a man takes a wife and, after laying with her, dislikes her and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, 'I married this woman but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,' then the girl's father and mother shall bring proof [how do you think they would do that?] that she was a virgin to the town elders at the gate. The girl's father will say to the elders, 'I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her. Now he has slandered her and said, 'I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.' But here is the proof of my daughter's virginity.' Then her parents shall display the cloth [the father would literally stick his two fingers covered with a piece of cloth into his daughter's vagina before she gets married and keep that bloody cloth for as long as his daughter is married] with before the elders of the town, and the elders shall take the man and punish him. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:13-18)"
Here is a more clear translation from Hebrew Resources: "The girl's father and mother shall produce the evidence of the girl's virginity before the elders of the town at the gate. And the girl's father shall say to the elders, "I gave this man my daughter to wife, but he had taken an aversion to her; so he has made up charges, saying, 'I did not find your daughter a virgin.' But here is the evidence of my daughter's virginity!" And they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. (From the New JPS translation, Deuteronomy 22:15-17)"
The New JPS translation of Deuteronomy 22:15-17 makes it even more clear about having the parents of the girl displaying the bloody piece of cloth before the elders of the town.
According to the Talmud, the cloth should be "A cloth of less than 3 square finger-breadths. (From the Talmud, Eruvin 29b-30a and Succah 16a)", and before it is being used, it should be "soft, woolen and clean. (From the Talmud, Niddah 17a)"
Also, the fact that there is no AGE LIMIT to how girls in the Bible were sold off and married off to other men, WITHOUT ANY CHOICE, who were much much older than them as also the case with the Biblical Prophets who married 100s of wives clearly proves the hypocrisy of some Christians who attack Islam through Aisha's very young age, while they clearly ignore the same fact in their own Bible. Here is a sample of the 100s of wives of the Biblical Prophets:
In Exodus 21:10, a man can marry an infinite amount of women without any limits to how many he can marry.
In 2 Samuel 5:13; 1 Chronicles 3:1-9, 14:3, King David had six wives and numerous concubines.
In 1 Kings 11:3, King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.
In 2 Chronicles 11:21, King Solomon's son Rehoboam had 18 wives and 60 concubines.
Even today, girls in many third-world countries are married off at the same or similar age. Also, it is believed by many Jews and Roman Catholics that Mary was 12 - 14 when she had Jesus. Also as I said, the Biblical Prophets who had 100s of wives each most probably married young girls as well.
Also, what about Aisha's PARENTS (MOM AND DAD)? Didn't they see it right and fit to marry their daughter at that age and at that time? Who are we to judge?
Fathers can sell their daughters as slave girls to other men in the Bible Fathers can sell their daughters as slave girls to other men in the Bible
Exodus 21:7-11
7. "If a man sells his daughter as a female slave, she is not to go free as the male slaves do.
8. "If she is displeasing in the eyes of her master who designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He does not have authority to sell her to a foreign people because of his unfairness to her.
9. "If he designates her for his son [Note: "his son" means that the master is either her father's age or even much older!], he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters.
10. "If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights.
11. "If he will not do these three things for her, then she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money. First of all, did the daughter have any choice to be sold off by her father, married off by her master to either himself or his son? No!
Also, the fact that the master can either marry her or marry her off to his son, means that MOST LIKELY, SHE IS HIS DAUGHTER'S AGE and younger than his son!! So he's probably at least 30+ years older than her. Yet, he himself (her father's age or even MUCH older) can marry her.
Fathers have full control over their daughters
The thing that we all must know is that the father in the Bible has full control over his daughters. Let us look at few quotes from Talmudic and Biblical resources:
The father has the right to force their daughters into marriage: "The father has the obligation to marry off his daughters. (From the Talmud, Kiddushin 29a, 30b)", and "Marrying off one's daughter as soon after she reaches adulthood as possible, even to one's Slave. (From the Talmud, Pesachim 113a)"
The father even has the right to sell his daughter as a servant (slave girl) to other men: "If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. (From the NIV Bible, Exodus 21:7-8)"
There is even pre-arranged marriage before the child is even born!
People before they are even born are arranged for marriage: "A Divine Voice announces who a soon-to-be-born boy and girl will marry when they grow up. (From the Talmud, Moed Katan 18b, Sotah 2a, Moed Katan 18b and Moed Katan 18b)"
A The woman's virginity can be taken through a person's hands, a father's finger inside his daughter. As I showed above, "digital defloration" means inserting a finger or thumb into the woman's vagina.
I had some Christians raise high objections to this point, and some had even criticized me of being a "liar". Well, beside from the above references that clearly prove my point, if you still do not believe me then go and seek it among OLD MIDDLE EASTERN Jews for yourself. Also, using your own personal common sense, explain to me what the Bible means by "her parents shall display the cloth" and its relationship to the girl's virginity? If the husband is the one to take his wife's virginity through sexual intercourse, then what would having the girl's parents displaying "the cloth" have anything to do with it?
You might then think, then how would the husband be able to know whether his wife was ever touched by another man if her father took her virginity away from her before marriage?
The answer to this question is that some men can tell by instinct whether their wives had previous relationships before when they sleep with their wives. This however is very difficult and doesn't apply to all men, especially when their wives are good in faking it. In the old Jewish culture fathers were to take their daughters' virginity and must keep the bloody cloth for as long as their daughters were married as a solid proof.
That is why the Bible mentions "the cloth" and orders the parents to use it as a proof. Using your own common sense, the cloth would not be a clean one like anyone you have at home. It has to be a bloody one.
These laws however are not GOD Almighty's Laws, even though they are considered as such. These are old Jewish Laws that had corrupted the Bible:
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!
Why would fathers do that?
Back in the old Biblical days, if a girl commits fornication, she would bring a big shame to the family. The family would lose their reputation and respect in the town. That is why you see Biblical verses such as the following:
"And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father: she shall be burnt with fire. (From the NIV Bible, Leviticus 21:9)"
"...and the birth of ANY daughter is a loss. (From the New Jerusalem Bible, Ecclesiasticus 22:3)"
"Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a MALE child: then she shall be unclean SEVEN DAYS; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying THIRTY THREE days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled. But if she bear a FEMALE child, then she shall be unclean TWO WEEKS, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying SIXTY SIX days. (From the NIV Bible, Leviticus 12:2-5)"
The entire Bible is corrupted anyway according to its Theologians!
The Bible itself admits that it has been tampered with and corrupted by man's alterations and corruptions:
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
And regarding who wrote the books and gospels of the Bible, well here is a sample of what the NIV Bible's theologians and historians wrote:
"Serious doubts exists as to whether these verses belong to the Gospel of Mark. They are absent from important early manuscripts and display certain peculiarities of vocabulary, style and theological content that are unlike the rest of Mark. His Gospel probably ended at 16:8, or its original ending has been lost. (From the NIV Bible Foot Notes, page 1528)"
"Although the author does not name himself, evidence outside the Scriptures and inferences from the book itself lead to the conclusion that the author was Luke. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1643)"
"The writer of this letter does not identify himself, but he was obviously well known to the original recipients. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1856)"
"The letter is difficult to date with precision....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1905)"
"It seems safe to conclude that the book, at least in its early form, dates from the beginning of the monarchy. Some think that Samuel may have had a hand in shaping or compiling the materials of the book, but in fact we are unsure who the final author or editor was. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 286)"
"Although, according to tradition, Samuel wrote the book, authorship is actually uncertain. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"
"The date of the composition is also unknown, but it was undoubtedly during the monarchy. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 322)"
"The author is unknown. Jewish tradition points to Samuel, but it is unlikely that he is the author because the mention of David (4:17,22) implies a later date. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 360)"
"Who the author was cannot be known with certainty since the book itself gives no indication of his identity. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 368)"
"There is little conclusive evidence as to the identity of the author of 1,2 Kings. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"
"Whoever the author was, it is clear that he was familiar with the book of Deuteronomy. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 459)"
"According to ancient Jewish tradition, Ezra wrote Chronicles, Ezra and Nehemiah (see Introduction to Ezra: Literary Form and Authorship), but this cannot be established with certainty. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 569)"
"Although we do not know who wrote the book of Esther, from internal evidence it is possible to make some inferences about the author and the date of composition. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 707)"
"The unknown author probably had access to oral and/or written sources....(From the NIV Bible commentary, page 722)"
"Regarding authorship, opinions are even more divided....(From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 773)"
etc...
How can you justify "digital defloration" to your sister or daughter?
As we've seen above, it was part of the old Jewish culture to do digital defloration (inserting a finger into the vagina) to women. Mary, the mother of Jesus, even got digitally deflowered herself! I'd like to ask all Jews and Christians this simple question:
How can you justify to your daughter or sister that it is Biblically and religiously OK to insert a (middle) finger (whether by male or female; it doesn't matter) into her vagina to take away her virginity?
I mean, beside the woman's husband, who should really have the authority to touch her in her private like that?
And also, could Jeremiah in Jeremiah 8:8 meant exactly this when he said that the Jews had so badly corrupted the Bible and turned it into a "lie"?
"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
As we've seen above, Deuteronomy 22:13-18 absolutely could not have referred to the husband covering his penis with the cloth and inserting it into his wife's vagina. The verse clearly talked about the cloth being in the parents' possession, and it clearly referred to having the evidence right before the wedding night.
So, could this digital defloration by the bride's relative (whether it is her father, mother, brother, sister, or what have you) be nothing but a ridiculous LIE that was put in GOD Almighty's Holy Mouth as a Revelation sent from Him as Jeremiah 8:8 above clearly suggests?
ISNEXT
Girls at the age of 3 were forced into sex in both the Talmud and the Bible. Also, the age consent in US and Europe was as low as 10:
]