Couple of questions

Islam!!yay

Junior Member
:salam2:

I have two questions that I'm a bit confused about.

1) Shaytan knows Allah SWT's full existence but because of his disobedience he will burn in hell forever, I'm just wondering why would shaytan , knowing full well he will burn in hell, want that fate ? Shouldn't he just give up his whisperings and surrender to Allah SWT and beg for His forgiveness or something ?

2) Part of chapter 5 verse 6 , Allah SWT mentions that if a believer has had ''an intimate contact with a woman" he must use some clean sand if theres no water to purify
himself. I was wondering why Allah SWT uses the word "woman" and not "wife" ? Do you think maybe its some grammatical way of use ?

Thank you in advance!
 

faaraa

Nothing but Muslimah
:ma:

This was useful for me too... JAZAKALLAHU KHAIR for the questions and the answers.. :)

FEE AMANILLAH:hearts:
 

saifkhan

abd-Allah
Salam alaikum warahamtu-llah

very intelligent but problematic questions.

01,we all know that Allah subhanahu wa ta'la is the one and we should obey Him alone, not to follow shaitan, but we still do sins. when we will commit sins more and more, our heart will become like the shaitan(arrogant, disobeying, ungreatful) and we'll be treated like shaitan, in a word, we'll be shaitan.
Shaitan is from jinns, they are same like us, a creation of God. Allah subhanahu wa ta'la cursed him.
anyways, isn't he like the thing, that if we commit shirk and dont testify Allah as One, we would be burnt in the hell with that wicked jinn guy: Iblis

moreover, Allahu ta'la alim, there are such thing, that we'd not and never be able to answer, coz our brain is worldly thing, limited thing.


02. I'm with brother ayman, what he said.
again Quran is not a normal book, it is a sacred and heavenly book.
and that's the intelligence/excellence of the language of Quran.


I hope > I have answered you, as far <i think and I could think of.
inshaa'Allah other brothers/sisters may help more, inshaa'Allah


JazakAllah khair'

wassalam
 

thariq2005

Praise be to Allah!
But there is another possible reason in the example you quoted: it is general about touching any woman. Perhaps that's why Ibn Hanbal opined that touching any woman requires wudhoo'. Abu-Haneefa did not think so. Authentic hadeeths make it clear that the Prophet (PBUH) used to kiss `Aa'isha (RA) and go to the prayer without making an additional wudhoo'.

Assalaamu `alaykkum

Just to point it, it was the opinion of Imaam ash Shafi`ee. And it was based on the ayah: “or you have been in contact with [laamastum] women” [al-Nisaa’:43].

And because Allaah uses this word in the following ayah to mean sexual intercourse: وَإِن كُنتُم مَّرْضَى أَوْ عَلَى سَفَرٍ أَوْ جَاء أَحَدٌ مِّنكُم مِّن الْغَآئِطِ أَوْ لاَمَسْتُمُ النِّسَاء فَلَمْ تَجِدُواْ مَاء فَتَيَمَّمُواْ صَعِيدًا طَيِّبًا

“But if you are ill or on a journey, or any of you comes after answering the call of nature, or you have been in contact with [laamastum]women (i.e. sexual intercourse), and you find no water, then perform Tayammum with clean earth”

Obviously, the opinion of Aboo Haneefah seems to be the most correct opinion, and Allaah knows best

Wassalaamu `alaykkum
 

arzafar

Junior Member
well actually i read that shaitan asked Allah to give him permission to misguide humans because he is jealous of humans as Allah preferred Adam over iblees. So Allah (swt) in His infinite wisdom granted permission to shaitaan to misguide humans. However, He also told iblees that he will not be able to misguide His true slaves.

so basically shaitaan knows his fate. it has been decided but he wants to take as many children of Adam (as) with him as he can.

brother tariq am i correct in my understanding?
 

Islam!!yay

Junior Member
well actually i read that shaitan asked Allah to give him permission to misguide humans because he is jealous of humans as Allah preferred Adam over iblees. So Allah (swt) in His infinite wisdom granted permission to shaitaan to misguide humans. However, He also told iblees that he will not be able to misguide His true slaves.

so basically shaitaan knows his fate. it has been decided but he wants to take as many children of Adam (as) with him as he can.

brother tariq am i correct in my understanding?


Allah SWT gave permission ? Is that a true teaching ? The only thing I have knowledge of Shaytan asking Allah for something was a respite
 

Islam!!yay

Junior Member
Salam alaikum warahamtu-llah

very intelligent but problematic questions.

01,we all know that Allah subhanahu wa ta'la is the one and we should obey Him alone, not to follow shaitan, but we still do sins. when we will commit sins more and more, our heart will become like the shaitan(arrogant, disobeying, ungreatful) and we'll be treated like shaitan, in a word, we'll be shaitan.
Shaitan is from jinns, they are same like us, a creation of God. Allah subhanahu wa ta'la cursed him.
anyways, isn't he like the thing, that if we commit shirk and dont testify Allah as One, we would be burnt in the hell with that wicked jinn guy: Iblis

moreover, Allahu ta'la alim, there are such thing, that we'd not and never be able to answer, coz our brain is worldly thing, limited thing.


02. I'm with brother ayman, what he said.
again Quran is not a normal book, it is a sacred and heavenly book.
and that's the intelligence/excellence of the language of Quran.


I hope > I have answered you, as far <i think and I could think of.
inshaa'Allah other brothers/sisters may help more, inshaa'Allah


JazakAllah khair'

wassalam


Whats the problem in asking ? we cant further our knowledge in Islam If we can ? why bring up sayings like we can become shaitan and all of that ?
 

saifkhan

abd-Allah
salam alaikum

I mean difficult to answer and some might not be satisfied with one's answer, so I said this. I didnt say to keep silent and not to ask.please don't misunderstand me.

there is nothing wrong in asking. did I say that?

and alhamdu li Allah: the far my knowledge could lead me, I've answered, and also mentioned that some other brother and sister might help us more, inshaa'Allah

how can we think that a man, a little man, when he is just 500 meters distance, we cant even see him clearly, how can a little man can think of knowing everything, every answers, our brain is limited, we can't think of more than our limit.

when angels asked Allah: we are here to worship You, why you need another creation to worship you? the Jinns are already done a lot mess, then Allah said: what I know, you dont know.

Allah said: I've not created man and jinn for except worship me!

Allah is almighty, he is the all-knower, all-seer, self sufficient, He doesn't need anything, even the whole Qayeenat is going to disobey Him, it doesn't make any difference in His majesty.

then why He wanted us to worship Him?
simple answer: to test us.

but what could be the purpose, if Allah willed He might not created us!
bu there are something, that Allah alone knows, we dont know and will never know, coz we have given limited brain. all we think is limit it in our worldly thoughts, where Allah is Highest one, His majesty is up above everything.
His doings are Godly things, not worldly!

Allah is the most wise.
this is my thinking and these satisfy me.

but may be someone may not accept these.

but the all our questions will be answered in the Hereafter, inshaa'Allah

I didn't say that we will become shaitan, I said if we dont testify/worship Allah, after knowing this, isn't it like we are committing same think like the iblis in a sense.

I hope, all of us know black-magicians' trick,
what do they do? they know Allah is watching but they still worship/ seek help of shaitan/jinn to do his work.
where we are only allowed to ask help/anything to Allah azza wa jal.
they know but they dont testify.

JazakAllahu khair

wassalam

PS: sometimes my wrong English may lead some prob, I apologize for that, may something happened like that, so someone is misunderstanding me, I'm sorry for that and Allah knows the best.please don't misunderstand me?
 

abdul-aziz

Junior Member
:salam2:


2) Part of chapter 5 verse 6 , Allah SWT mentions that if a believer has had ''an intimate contact with a woman" he must use some clean sand if theres no water to purify
himself. I was wondering why Allah SWT uses the word "woman" and not "wife" ? Do you think maybe its some grammatical way of use ?

Thank you in advance!

:salam2:

let's make a hypothetical and place wife instead of woman. Now I commit a sin and have intimate contact with a woman that is not my wife. Do I pray without ghusl?

you see the act is what makes the impurity in this verse.

just because someone commits a horrible sin (other than shirk) doesn't exclude him or her from making prayer. So the ayah says woman, and we know what is acceptable with regards to intimacy. But the ayah also extends beyond, and include any act of intimacy.

it could be that someone was overtaken and did commit intimacy in non acceptable ways. Now he feels very bad and wants to make tawba. What he or she needs to do is purify themselves and never repeat it.

see al-imran(3) ayah 135.

wa Allah ya'lam

:wasalam:
 
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