Du'a before fasting and while finishing the fast: Is it a Bida'h?

Ershad

Junior Member
Dear brothers and Sisters,

:salam2:

Ramadan Kareem!

I hope Allah is making the fasting easy for everyone. I have a question. It is a practice I have been doing for long and recently there is a debate about it. I would be glad if someone would clear my doubt with references and proofs.

I say (or whisper not read out loud) these du'a before fasting:
"Wa bisawmi ghadinn nawaiytu min shahri ramadan" which means "I intend to keep the fast for tomorrow in the month of Ramadan" and while finishing the fast "Allahumma inni laka sumtu wa bika aamantu wa alayka tawakkaltu was ala rizq-ika-aftarhu" which means "O Allah! I fasted for You and I believe in You and I put my trust in You and I break my fast with Your sustenance".

I know it is not Fard. But some articles say Prophet Muhammad used to say it ( http://d1.islamhouse.com/data/en/ih_books/single/en_The_Fasting_of_Ramadan_Zeenoo.pdf). Now, some people say that it is wrong and saying these du'a would result in the act of Bida'h. I am confused about this since I have been doing it for long and the meaning of the du'a is not wrong. I am just expressing my intention (not loud, just saying to Allah).

Please clarify if it is a bida'h.

Thank you all.

Allah knows the best. Jazakallahu Khair!
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
Dear brothers and Sisters,

:salam2:

Ramadan Kareem!

I hope Allah is making the fasting easy for everyone. I have a question. It is a practice I have been doing for long and recently there is a debate about it. I would be glad if someone would clear my doubt with references and proofs.

I say (or whisper not read out loud) these du'a before fasting:
"Wa bisawmi ghadinn nawaiytu min shahri ramadan" which means "I intend to keep the fast for tomorrow in the month of Ramadan" and while finishing the fast "Allahumma inni laka sumtu wa bika aamantu wa alayka tawakkaltu was ala rizq-ika-aftarhu" which means "O Allah! I fasted for You and I believe in You and I put my trust in You and I break my fast with Your sustenance".

I know it is not Fard. But some articles say Prophet Muhammad used to say it ( http://d1.islamhouse.com/data/en/ih_books/single/en_The_Fasting_of_Ramadan_Zeenoo.pdf). Now, some people say that it is wrong and saying these du'a would result in the act of Bida'h. I am confused about this since I have been doing it for long and the meaning of the du'a is not wrong. I am just expressing my intention (not loud, just saying to Allah).

Please clarify if it is a bida'h.

Thank you all.

Allah knows the best. Jazakallahu Khair!

:salam2:

Since you do not know me, I will let you know that I am not a Muslim but I hope that your Ramadan is filled with peace and joy thus far.

I think this is an EXCELLENT question and the answer is something that needs to be known. I took a moment and looked up this information for you. I hope it is useful for you.

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/37805/dua before fasting

There is no specific du’aa’ to be recited when starting to fast


Is that what is the dua atthe time of begningof fasting.

Praise be to Allaah.

Al-Tirmidhi (3451) narrated from Talhah ibn ‘Ubayd-Allaah (may Allaah be pleased with him) that when the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) saw the new moon, he would say, “Allaahumma ahlilhu ‘alayna bi’l-yumni wa’l-eemaan wa’l-salaamah wa’l-islaam. Rabbiy wa rabbuka Allaah (O Allaah, make the new moon rise on us with blessing, faith, safety and Islam. My Lord and Your Lord is Allah).” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 2745.


This du’aa’ is not just for the new moon of Ramadaan, rather the Muslim should say it when he sees the new moon at the beginning of every month. With regard to saying du’aa’ every day, there is no du’aa’ that the Muslim should say when starting to fast each day. Rather he should simply have the intention that he is going to fast tomorrow.​


The intention is subject to the condition that it be made at night, before the dawn comes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not intend to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 730. According to a version narrated by al-Nasaa’i (2334): “Whoever does not intend to fast from the night before, there is no fast for him.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 573. What is meant is that whoever does not intend to fast and resolve to do so from the night before, his fast is not valid.


The intention (niyyah) is an action of the heart. The Muslim should resolve in his heart that he is going to fast tomorrow. It is not prescribed for him to utter it out loud and say, “I intend to fast” and other phrases that have been innovated by some people.


And Allaah knows best.


Islam Q&A
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
:salam2:

I just found this one as well relating to Iftar..

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/124410/dua before fasting

Is it true that the veil is lifted between Allaah and His slaves at the time of breaking the fast?

DUA AT THE TIME OF IFTAAR - A MOST BEAUTIFUL HADITH Once Moosa (Moses) (AS) asked Allah Taala: O Allah ! you have granted me the honor and privilege of talking to you directly, Have you given this privilege to any other person? Allah Taala replied, O Moosa during the last period I am going to send an ummat, who will be the Ummat of Mohammed with dry lips, parched tongues, emaciated body with eyes sunken deep into their sockets, with livers dry and stomachs suffering the pangs of hunger- will call out to me (in dua) they will be much much closer to me than you O Moosa! While you speak to me there are 70000 veils between you and me but at the time of iftaar there will not be a single veil between me and the fasting Ummati of Mohammed . Please confirm us the authenticity of this ...its being spread on net.

Praise be to Allaah.


This hadeeth is not part of the Prophet’s Sunnah, and it is not something that is known to the scholars and muhaddithoon in their books and Musnads. It is not narrated except in a few books whose authors filled them with fabricated reports, false reports, stories and myths, such as Nuzhat al-Majaalis wa Muntakhab al-Nafaa’is, by the historian and man of letters ‘Abd al-Rahmaan ibn ‘Abd al-Salaam al-Safoori (d. 894 AH) – pp. 182-183, Chapter on the virtue of Ramadaan and encouragement to do good deeds therein. It also appears in the tafseer Rooh al-Bayaan (8/112) by Ismaa’eel Haqqi al-Hanafi al-Khalooti (d. 1127 AH). They mentioned a hadeeth similar to that referred to by the questioner, in which it says: “Moosa (peace be upon him) said: ‘O Lord, You have honoured me by speaking to me directly. Will You give anyone else something like this?’ And Allaah revealed: ‘O Moosa, I have slaves whom I will bring forth at the end of time, and I will honour them with the month of Ramadaan, and I will closer to one of them than to you, because you have spoken to Me when there are seventy thousand veils between Me and you, but when the ummah of Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) fasts until their lips turn white and their faces turn yellow, I will lift the veil between Me and them at the time they break their fast. O Moosa, glad tidings to the one whose liver thirsts and whose stomach hungers in Ramadaan.”​


Moreover, in the matn (text) of this hadeeth there is something which indicates that it is munkar (i.e., unsound), which is the words “I will be closer to one of them than you” – referring to Moosa (peace be upon him). It is well known in Muslim belief that the Messengers and Prophets are better than all other humans, and Moosa is one of the Messengers of strong will, so how can Allaah be closer to His slaves than to His Prophet Moosa (peace be upon him), of whom He said (interpretation of the meaning): “And We called him from the right side of the Mount, and made him draw near to Us for a talk with him” [Maryam 19:52]? And Ibn ‘Abbaas (may Allaah be pleased with him) said: He drew so close that he heard the scratching of the Pen – i.e., writing the Tawraat (Torah). See: Tafseer al-Qur’aan il-‘Azeem by al-Haafiz Ibn Katheer (5/237).​


To sum up: The hadeeth mentioned is not in any of the reliable books, so it is not permissible to attribute it the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) or to believe what it says.​


And Allaah knows best.​


Islam Q&A
 

Ershad

Junior Member
Dear sister,

Salaam.

I hope you will embrace Islam someday. Ameen. May Allah's blessing and guidance be upon you. Thank you for the article. I have read it before. But it didn't convince me. First I am not sure about the source. I don't understand which is authentic and which is not. The site I mention has articles by Bilal Philips and Zakir Naik who are well known for their correctness. As quoted by your article "The intention is subject to the condition that it be made at night, before the dawn comes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not intend to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 730. According to a version narrated by al-Nasaa’i (2334): “Whoever does not intend to fast from the night before, there is no fast for him.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 573. What is meant is that whoever does not intend to fast and resolve to do so from the night before, his fast is not valid. "

Now, like it said I understand quoting it loud would be a bida'h which I do not do. Also we understand that we have to make this niyaah. What is wrong in making it in arabic or any other language? Both mean the same thing right? How would that cause a bida'h? The article I provided says " At the time if breaking the fast, the Messenger of Allah (sal-Allahu 'alayhe wa sallam) used to say: ((The thirst has gone and the veins are moistened, and the reward is confirmed, if Allah wills)), [Hasan, transmitted by Abu Daawood]; " Please check the etiquettes of fasting section in it. Here is another article mentioning it : http://sunnah.org/ibadaat/fasting/ramadan_breakfast.htm. This is a article by Dr.Bilal Philips and he also mentions about du'a while breaking the fast : http://www.fastramadan.com/ramadan_and_fasting.php.

I am confused.

Jazakallahu Khair!

Hope I get more convincing answer.
 

Janaan

ربنا اغفر لنا ذنوبنا
Staff member
As-salaamu `alaikum warahmatullaah !

Brother, out of the two 'suplications', the former is considered bid`ah. The one with the "wa bisawmi ghadin..." This is because there are no reports indicating Rasool-Allaah making that 'suplication'. We are told to make "intentions" before fasting in order for it to be valid. This "intention" should be concealed.. The tongue should not be uttering it. It is not an "action". You said that your reason for saying it outloud(or whispering, though I do not see a difference between the two because your tongue, lips etc will still be 'moving' despite whatever volume you make of your voice) is because you're saying it to Allaah? Well, just so you know, Allaah SWT knows whatever is in our hearts. He's All-knower. You do not need to say it outloud for Him(subhaanu wa ta`aala) for He is already aware of your intention.

And the du`aa you read when opening your fast is correct (it's in the Husnul Muslim as well, I think). I don't believe I, or anyone has told you that reading it was bid`ah, akhy.

Read through sis Jen's post(I think Tabassum has also posted the same fatwa in the other thread for you... But it won't hurt to read it once more)... Hope things are more clear now, Insha'Allaah!
:)
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
Dear sister,

Salaam.

I hope you will embrace Islam someday. Ameen. May Allah's blessing and guidance be upon you. Thank you for the article. I have read it before. But it didn't convince me. First I am not sure about the source. I don't understand which is authentic and which is not. The site I mention has articles by Bilal Philips and Zakir Naik who are well known for their correctness. As quoted by your article "The intention is subject to the condition that it be made at night, before the dawn comes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not intend to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 730. According to a version narrated by al-Nasaa’i (2334): “Whoever does not intend to fast from the night before, there is no fast for him.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 573. What is meant is that whoever does not intend to fast and resolve to do so from the night before, his fast is not valid. "

Now, like it said I understand quoting it loud would be a bida'h which I do not do. Also we understand that we have to make this niyaah. What is wrong in making it in arabic or any other language? Both mean the same thing right? How would that cause a bida'h? The article I provided says " At the time if breaking the fast, the Messenger of Allah (sal-Allahu 'alayhe wa sallam) used to say: ((The thirst has gone and the veins are moistened, and the reward is confirmed, if Allah wills)), [Hasan, transmitted by Abu Daawood]; " Please check the etiquettes of fasting section in it. Here is another article mentioning it : http://sunnah.org/ibadaat/fasting/ramadan_breakfast.htm. This is a article by Dr.Bilal Philips and he also mentions about du'a while breaking the fast : http://www.fastramadan.com/ramadan_and_fasting.php.

I am confused.

Jazakallahu Khair!

Hope I get more convincing answer.

Brother,

First, thank you for your Dua as I know it is from the heart and that should never be rejected.

As for the source, I found the site because of the moderators here. Also, when you goto the "About the site" section, it tells you who runs the site and how the Fatwah's are issued. I can understand your distrust and that is a good thing to have...I hope you receive the answers you are looking for.
 

Ershad

Junior Member
:wasalam:

Dear Sister,

Okay. It is a bit clear. But I need more clarification. Saying out loud and whispering are different. By saying out loud I disturb others. Do you have any proof for the fact that lips and tongue should not move while making niyyat? or Is it not clearly stated in Qur'an. If it is not clearly stated, either way is accepted right?

Regarding the first supplication. How do you make your niyyat? Must be in your language right? Similarly, I consider Arabic to be the lingua franca of Islam. So, I am making my niyyat in arabic with those words. How can this be bida'h?

If you have substantiate and give more explanation, I will be happy. I hope you understand how confused I am.

Thank you for your efforts.

Jazakallahu Khair!
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
:salam2:

Brother, I just found this one and thought I'd pass it on. I understand your reluctance to accept this from the website but maybe it'll help guide you towards more answers...like a stepping stone.

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/13337/intention

Ruling on uttering the intention (niyyah) in acts of worship

Should a Muslim utter the intention (niyyah) when he starts to do an act of worship, such as saying, “I intend to do wudoo’”, “I intend to pray”, “I intend to fast” and so on?

Praise be to Allaah.​


Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah was asked about the intention when starting to do an act of worship such as praying etc., do we need to utter it verbally, such as saying, “I intend to pray, I intend to fast”?​


He replied:​


Praise be to Allaah.​


The intention of purifying oneself by doing wudoo’ ghusl or tayammum, of praying, fasting, paying zakaah, offering kafaarah (expiation) and other acts of worship does not need to be uttered verbally, according to the consensus of the imaams of Islam. Rather the place of intention is the heart, according to the consensus among them. If a person utters something by mistake that goes against what is in his heart, then what counts is what he intended, not what he said.​


No one has mentioned any difference of opinion concerning this matter, except that some of the later followers of al-Shaafa’i expressed approval of that, but some of the leaders of this madhhab said that this was wrong. But in the dispute among the scholars as to whether it is mustahabb to utter one’s intention, there are two points of view. Some of the companions of Abu Haneefah, al-Shaafa’i and Ahmad said that it is mustahabb to utter the intention so as to make it stronger.​


Some of the companions of Maalik, Ahmad and others said that it is not mustahabb to utter it, because that is a bid’ah (innovation). It was not narrated that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) or his Sahaabah did it or that he commanded anyone among his ummah to utter the intention. That is not known from any of the Muslims. If that had been prescribed then the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and his companions would not have neglected it, as it has to do with worship which the ummah does every day and night.​


This is the more correct view. Indeed, uttering the intention is a of irrational thinking and falling short in religious commitment. In terms of falling short in religious commitment, that is because it is bid’ah (an innovation). In terms of irrational thinking, that is because it is like a person who wants to eat some food saying, “I intend to put my hand in this vessel, take out a morsel of food, put it in my mouth and chew it, then swallow it, and eat until I have had my fill.” This is sheer foolishness and ignorance.​


Intention is connected to knowledge. If a person knows what he is doing then he has obviously made an intention. It cannot be imagined, if he knows what he wants to do, that he has not formed an intention. The imaams are agreed that speaking the intention out loud and repeating it is not prescribed in Islam, rather the person who has made this a habit should be disciplined and told not to worship Allaah by following bid’ah and not to disturb others by raising his voice. And Allaah knows best.​


Al-Fataawa al-Kubra, 1/214, 215
Brother, I just found this one as well. I hope it helps. To me, it can not be refuted since it comes straight from the General Presidency of Scholarly Research and Ifta.

In case the link doesn't work properly, I used English language with the search string "niyyah" and it was the 4th link down.

http://www.alifta.net/Search/Result...hkeyword=110105121121097104#firstKeyWordFound

[FONT=size=2][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"]Q 5: Which is more preferable: to express Niyyah (intention) verbally or inwardly?

A: Al-Niyyah is one of the devotional acts based on the religious principle of Tawqif (bound by a religious text and not amenable to personal opinion). It should be expressed inwardly. It is an act of Bid`ah (rejected innovation in religion) to express it verbally. Neither the Prophet (peace be upon him) nor his Sahabah (Companions) are known to have expressed it verbally. It is authentically reported in the two Sahih (the two authentic books of Al-Bukhari and Muslim) and other books of Hadith that the Prophet (peace be upon him) said to the Bedouin who was at fault in performing his Salah (Prayer): When you stand up for prayer, say Takbir (saying: "Allahu Akbar [Allah is the Greatest]") and then recite from the Qur’an what you know. It is also reported in the Sunan (Hadith compilations classified by jurisprudential themes) that the Prophet (peace be upon him) said:The key of prayer is purification;

(
Part No. 6; Page No. 321)

Takbir (saying "Allah is most great") makes (all acts which break prayer) unlawful and Taslim (salutation of peace ending the Prayer) makes (all such acts) lawful.
It is also reported in the Sahih of Muslim on the authority of `Aishah (may Allah be pleased with her): The Prophet (peace be upon him) used to commence prayer saying: Allah Akbar (Allah is the most Great) and reciting Surah Al-Fatihah. It has been authentically reported and unanimously agreed upon by all Muslims that the Prophet (peace be upon him) and his Sahabah used to start their Salah with Takbir. Neither the Prophet (peace be upon them) nor his Sahabah are reported to have expressed Al-Niyyah verbally. The claim on the permissibility of expressing it verbally is rejected because the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: He who innovates things in our affairs for which there is no valid (reason) (commits sin) and these are to be rejected. Authenticity of this Hadith is agreed upon by both Al-Bukhari and Muslim. In another narration related by Imam Muslim (may Allah have mercy on him), it is stated: He who does any act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, that is to be rejected.

May Allah grant us success! May peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad, his family and Companions!

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Ershad

Junior Member
:salam2:

Neither the Prophet (peace be upon them) nor his Sahabah are reported to have expressed Al-Niyyah verbally. The claim on the permissibility of expressing it verbally is rejected because the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: He who innovates things in our affairs for which there is no valid (reason) (commits sin) and these are to be rejected. Authenticity of this Hadith is agreed upon by both Al-Bukhari and Muslim. In another narration related by Imam Muslim (may Allah have mercy on him), it is stated: He who does any act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, that is to be rejected.

Dear Sister,

Thank you for the link. I am not reluctant. I checked about the site and I believe it is genuine. I think this explanation is more clear. I can't believe I have been wrong all these days. Anyway, not too late to learn.

Thanks so much for clarifying. You are not a muslim but you still try to learn it. I am impressed by it. Thank you again.

Jazakallahu Khair!
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
:salam2:



Dear Sister,

Thank you for the link. I am not reluctant. I checked about the site and I believe it is genuine. I think this explanation is more clear. I can't believe I have been wrong all these days. Anyway, not too late to learn.

Thanks so much for clarifying. You are not a muslim but you still try to learn it. I am impressed by it. Thank you again.

Jazakallahu Khair!

Brother,

I was happy to be of service. Ramadan kareem..be well.
 

Tabassum07

Smile for Allah
:salam2:

Alhamdulillah brother, that all the brothers' and sisters' posts in this thread and the other one have helped you understand the truth.
 

uddim004

Junior Member
:salam2:
i can't belive i was saying these my whole life. this ramadan muslim aid sent me a fridge magnet with their letter and it had these dua's but if its wrong, its wrong
 

Tabassum07

Smile for Allah
:salam2:
i can't belive i was saying these my whole life. this ramadan muslim aid sent me a fridge magnet with their letter and it had these dua's but if its wrong, its wrong

:salam2:

Just to clarify, the dua for the intention to start the fast is bidah. However, we can say the dua to break the fast.
 

queenislam

★★★I LOVE ALLAH★★★
It's Wajib To Say The Intention And Not Bid'ah!

:salam2:

Just to clarify, the dua for the intention to start the fast is bidah. However, we can say the dua to break the fast.

~~~
:salam2:

Dear sister;

For the fasting of Ramadhan, the obligatory fasts and other fasting (ie, fasting vows, and some cases), required intention done at night or before dawn(before fajar Azan)
because the Prophet Muhammad s.a.w said;
"He/She who does not pronounce/say the intention of fast at night or before dawn(before Azan Fajar) there is no fast for him" .
(Reported by Imam Daruqutni and Sufis from Aisha).


The 3 rule of fasting is:
1: To Fast.
2: To say the Intention of fasting.
3:Abstain from the things that invalidate the fast.

Fasting is wajib is an Ibadah.
We have to say the Intention because it's the beginning of fasting.

Even making up fast
like because of menstruation(for woman),some other those who miss like sick,e.t.c
still have to say their intention too for the make up fast.

Fating of sunnat too have to say the intention of exactly what type of fast we are
performing
like:
Fasting six days in Shawwal;
Fasting the day of 'Arafah (9th Muharram)
e.t.c

For a month of Ramadhan intentions/niat fasting to be said at earliest of
Ramadhan fasting to be start the next day.
And one doesn't need to say the intention anymore.

But for a daily of intention say before the start of each fast day in Ramadhan should be say every day before fajar Azan and to avoid eating after the intention make even not timed yet for fajar Azan!

Not necessarily the fasts intentions to expressed in Arabics, (Mention the name of what we about to fast example Ramadhan fasting)
The Intentions to be said before dawn hours before Fajar Azan.

The above is about the intentions/niat to perform fast in Ramadhan or any fast performing.

Dear sister;
I hope my explaination is clear as
this is what i've learn .

If you choose not to follow, the decision is yours.

~May Allah swt help,protect and guide us~Amin!

Ramadhan Kariim Al Mubarak!

Thank you ,
Take care!
~Wassalam :)
 

abdul-aziz

Junior Member
Dear sister,

Salaam.

I hope you will embrace Islam someday. Ameen. May Allah's blessing and guidance be upon you. Thank you for the article. I have read it before. But it didn't convince me. First I am not sure about the source. I don't understand which is authentic and which is not. The site I mention has articles by Bilal Philips and Zakir Naik who are well known for their correctness. As quoted by your article "The intention is subject to the condition that it be made at night, before the dawn comes, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever does not intend to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 730. According to a version narrated by al-Nasaa’i (2334): “Whoever does not intend to fast from the night before, there is no fast for him.” Classed as hasan by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi, 573. What is meant is that whoever does not intend to fast and resolve to do so from the night before, his fast is not valid. "

Now, like it said I understand quoting it loud would be a bida'h which I do not do. Also we understand that we have to make this niyaah. What is wrong in making it in arabic or any other language? Both mean the same thing right? How would that cause a bida'h? The article I provided says " At the time if breaking the fast, the Messenger of Allah (sal-Allahu 'alayhe wa sallam) used to say: ((The thirst has gone and the veins are moistened, and the reward is confirmed, if Allah wills)), [Hasan, transmitted by Abu Daawood]; " Please check the etiquettes of fasting section in it. Here is another article mentioning it : http://sunnah.org/ibadaat/fasting/ramadan_breakfast.htm. This is a article by Dr.Bilal Philips and he also mentions about du'a while breaking the fast : http://www.fastramadan.com/ramadan_and_fasting.php.

I am confused.

Jazakallahu Khair!

Hope I get more convincing answer.

:salam2:

let's start with the first question as I understood by your questions.

Intentions:

reference:

An-nawawi 40 hadith:

"Actions are (judged) by motives (niyyah), so each man will have what he intended. Thus, he whose migration (hijrah) was to Allah and His Messenger, his migration is to Allah and His Messenger; but he whose migration was for some worldly thing he might gain, or for a wife he might marry, his migration is to that for which he migrated."

[Al-Bukhari & Muslim]

commentary can be found: here
additional hadith about deeds with commentary:here
Yes you need to make your intention and for fasting it is night before the fasting day. The night before the fasting day ends at fajr that day.

The bidaah part is when you say it out loud. You don't need to say out loud your intentions as Allah states about His knowledge:

[Hilali-Khan] Or say they: "He has invented a lie against Allah?" If Allah willed, He could have sealed your heart (so that you forget all that you know of the Qur'an). And Allah wipes out falsehood, and establishes the truth (Islam) by His Word (this Qur'an). Verily, He knows well what (the secrets) are in the breasts (of mankind).[42:24]

[Hilali-Khan] He knows what is in the heavens and on earth, and He knows what you conceal and what you reveal. And Allah is the All-Knower of what is in the breasts (of men). [64:4]

There is a bidaah where people utter or mumble that they are going to like pray salat al asr or salat so and so and feel they are required to do so. Only this part of the action is bidaah.


Now for your other question that I understood.

There is a lot of value of making duaa when someone completes or is about to complete an act of worship. IE. in salah, after tashahud and salat ala nabi SAW and Ibrahim Alayhi assalam and after the salah. Duaa can be made in fact all through out the salah. Same with fasting, it is from the sunnah to make duaa upon the time of breaking the fast. As you mentioned Dr. Gibril Hadaad article reference:http://sunnah.org/ibadaat/fasting/ramadan_breakfast.htm

This is correct but let me make 1 note. The duaa Dhahab az zamaa’u.... is to be said after you had satisfied yourself of thirst and hunger.

Also you could make as many other duaa as you wish as it is mentioned that one of the times Allah answers duaa more than others is the time of breaking a fast. I don't have the hadith in reference to that sorry.

Third question I understood you asked: Is should you utter or speak out loudly your duaa. You can and normal supplication is by moving of the lips and it is not necessary to make any recognizable sound. You also can say it in your heart if you want to make it a private affair between you and Allah.

Also QueenIslam made some very good comments as well. She said Fating but she meant Fasting.

:wasalam:
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
:salam2:

While looking for a different answer, I found this fatwah and remembered this thread....as if it was yesterday actually, and thought I'd post the fatwah for everyone to see. I'm sorry but I can't seem to fix the exposed HTML code completely...


From the General Presidency:
[FONT=size=2][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"]Ruling on declaring the intention upon performing Wudu` or Salah [/size][/size][/SIZE][/FONT]
[FONT=size=2][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"][SIZE=2"] Q: Is it an act of Bid`ah (innovation in religion) to declare the intention aloud for performing Wudu' (ablution) or Salah (Prayer) by saying: "O Allah! I intend to make Wudu' for the `Asr (Afternoon) Prayer?

A:
It is not prescribed to declare intentions of performing Salah or Wudu', because intention is an act of the heart which has nothing to do with the tongue. It is sufficient to make the intention for Salah or Wudu' in one's heart.

There is no need to say: "I intend to make Wudu" or to say: "I intend to observe Salah, or to fast, etc." Intention is the work of heart. The reward of deeds depends upon the intentions and every person will get the reward according to what he has intended.

Neither the Prophet (peace be upon him) nor any of his Companions are reported to have uttered the intention for Salah or Wudu'. Therefore, we have to follow in their footsteps. We should not introduce any act in Islam for which there is no sanction from Allah or His Messenger. The Prophet (peace be upon him) is reported to have said: Whoever performs an act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, it is to be rejected.

Thus, it is clear that declaring intentions constitutes an act of Bid`ah.

May Allah grant us success!


Q: A Sudanese brother living in Jeddah asks about the ruling of stating intention to perform Wudu` or Salah audibly.


A:
Verbal statement of intentions is an act of Bid`ah as neither the Prophet (peace be upon him) nor any of his Companions are reported to have done this. It is, therefore, obligatory not to express it in words. Since intentions are done by the heart and have nothing to do with the tongue, there is no need to state it audibly.
May Allah grant us success![/size][/size][/SIZE][/FONT]
 
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