gods interventions

db92509

New Member
Hello Forum

I have been infrmed on many occasions that mohammed was not literate, can someone advise me of the evidence for this.

secondly as far as i am aware the tradition of the time was of oral transmission, so regardless of whether mohammed could actually read or write (which wold have been quite unusual for the time anyway) there is nothing to suggest that he was not learned, through oral learning and memorisation.
correct me if i'm wrong but i understand that christians and jews made up a fairly large proportion of the arabian population.
mohammed will have had contact with many christians and jews.
As can be evidenced from the incredible number of sects in evidence today these jews/christians will have had many differing opinions. Afterall they will have had 600 years to ponder the blatant and obvious inconsistencies of their writings.

i believe that through this contact the ideas and revision of judaic/christian tradition culminated in the quran and islam.

Can anyone tell me why this is not a reasonable hypothesis
 

revert2007

Love Fishing
the first 5 verses to be revealed

1. Read! In the Name of your Lord, Who has created (all that exists),
2. Has created man from a clot (a piece of thick coagulated blood).
3. Read! And your Lord is the Most Generous,
4. Who has taught (the writing) by the pen [the first person to write was Prophet Idrees (Enoch)],
5. Has taught man that which he knew not.

so the Angel taught the Prophet pbuh how to read
 

Hard Rock Moslem

I'm your brother
Thank you for asking.

Hello Forum

I have been infrmed on many occasions that mohammed was not literate, can someone advise me of the evidence for this.

From what source of evidence are you looking for?

Qur'an (Muhsin Khan's translation): Those who follow the Messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write (i.e.Muhammad SAW) whom they find written with them in the Taurat (Torah) (Deut, xviii, 15) and the Injeel (Gospel) (John xiv, 16), -.....(Al-Araaf 7:157)

Bible - Isaiah 29:12 'And the book is delivered to him that is not learned saying, read this, I pray thee, and he said, I am not learned.'

We muslim say Isaiah 29:12 was referring to Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon Him) not Holy Spirit because Holy Spirit can not be illiterate.

Many orientalist also acknowledged that the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon Him) is illiterate (read Bernard Shaw, Michael H Hart, Karen Armstrong's writing).


secondly as far as i am aware the tradition of the time was of oral transmission, so regardless of whether mohammed could actually read or write (which wold have been quite unusual for the time anyway) there is nothing to suggest that he was not learned, through oral learning and memorisation.

You are trying to prove that the Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon Him) indeed copied Qur'an from other sources such as Bible and Torah etc. Well, I've read many times this in the web and just make me laugh how much this ppl in denial of the truth. How can He copy or memorised something from other sources without also copying the errors and contradictions found in those books? You must first understand the attributes of Prophet and clear definition of God's revelation.

correct me if i'm wrong but i understand that christians and jews made up a fairly large proportion of the arabian population.
mohammed will have had contact with many christians and jews.
As can be evidenced from the incredible number of sects in evidence today these jews/christians will have had many differing opinions. Afterall they will have had 600 years to ponder the blatant and obvious inconsistencies of their writings.

i believe that through this contact the ideas and revision of judaic/christian tradition culminated in the quran and islam.

Can anyone tell me why this is not a reasonable hypothesis

Consider following facts:
- Qur'an contains new information that is not in the Bible / Torah
- Scientific facts, Qur'an and Bible has almost the same stories, but Qur'an is correct and Bible is incorrect. How come?
- First Arabic Translation of Old Testament - 900 CE by R. Saadias Gaon i.e. after the Prophet time.
- First Arabic Translation of New Testament - 1616 CE Published by Erpenius i.e. after the Prophet time.
- If was copied from Judeo-Christian

Why would He the Prophet Muhammad (peace and
blessings be upon Him) consider Bible or Torah when he said this:

Narrated Abu Huraira: "The people of the Book used to read the Torah in Hebrew and then explain it in Arabic to the Muslims. Allah's Apostle said (to the Muslims). 'Do not believe the people of the Book, nor disbelieve them, but say, 'We believe in Allah and whatever is revealed to us, and whatever is revealed to you.' ' (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Holding Fast to the Qur'an and Sunnah, Volume 9, Book 92, Number 460)"

Some related story refer here:

http://www.islam101.com/religions/christianity/faq.htm


May Allah guides you, ameen.
 
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