kayleigh
Junior Member
:salam2:
We all know that the life of Muhammad (saw) is well documented, and even non-Muslims know full well that he did in fact exist as a person, though perhaps not as a prophet. Why isn't there such documentation of Jesus existing at the time?
There were several well known historians living in the area at the estimated time of Jesus' existence (or Isa, whatever), but there is no reliable historical record of anyone by that name preaching or doing all the "prophet-y" things he did. all there is is the Bible, which is corrupt and untrue, and our holy book, which doesn't count because it was written hundreds of years later. There's one excerpt from a famous historian used by Christians to support his existence, which has been proven for hundreds of years to be a forgery. Then there's three famous historians that are used, but they each only mentioned someone by the name of "Christ" (in various languages) once or twice, which is a title, not a name.
So, just out of curiosity, is there an explanation for that? Do Muslims believe all historical documents - not just the Bible - was forged or corrupted? If so, that doesn't make sense in this case, and it seems pretty far-fetched.
ps - I'm not doubting, I'm just curious
We all know that the life of Muhammad (saw) is well documented, and even non-Muslims know full well that he did in fact exist as a person, though perhaps not as a prophet. Why isn't there such documentation of Jesus existing at the time?
There were several well known historians living in the area at the estimated time of Jesus' existence (or Isa, whatever), but there is no reliable historical record of anyone by that name preaching or doing all the "prophet-y" things he did. all there is is the Bible, which is corrupt and untrue, and our holy book, which doesn't count because it was written hundreds of years later. There's one excerpt from a famous historian used by Christians to support his existence, which has been proven for hundreds of years to be a forgery. Then there's three famous historians that are used, but they each only mentioned someone by the name of "Christ" (in various languages) once or twice, which is a title, not a name.
So, just out of curiosity, is there an explanation for that? Do Muslims believe all historical documents - not just the Bible - was forged or corrupted? If so, that doesn't make sense in this case, and it seems pretty far-fetched.
ps - I'm not doubting, I'm just curious