TO THE PEOPLE WHO SRE SAYING COCA COLA IS HARAM!!!!!!

mohammed 1234

Darkness to Light
TO THE PEOPLE WHO ARE SAYING COCA COLA IS HARAM!!!!!!

As salam alaykum

I would like to spread some light on this issue and have come across this from our sheikhs and ulama.

The following is the transcription of the lecture given by Shaykh Muhammad Bazmool (hafidhahullah) :

The Fiqh Principle of Istihala – Changing from impure to pure

(Taken entirely from a dars given by Sh. Muhammad Bazmool, Professor at Umm ul Qura Makkah translated by Moosa Richardson and a fatwa given by Shaykh al-Albaani)

Istihala is when something becomes pure. It was najis (impure) but it is now taahir (pure). A good example would be maitah (animal carcass): it is najis, but should it be burned and become ashes, or decompose and become earth, then it is taahir, it is no longer najis. This can happen with dung or feces or whatever. Whenever something changes from one property to another, then the ruling likewise changes.

Example: Let us say that someone uses the fat of a dead animal to make soap. That fat is najis, but the chemical change that it was put through makes it taahir.

Ibn Hazm put it concisely when he said, "Ruling upon an object is upon what it is named (what it is), if the name (what it is) changes then so does the ruling."

He also mentioned in his book of fiqh, Al-Muhalla: "If the quality of the substance of naturally impure objects changes the name which was given to it so that it is no more applicable to it and it is given a new name which is given to a pure object, so it is no more an impure thing. It becomes a new object, with a new rule."

Meaning that if the natural composition of a substance changes to another substance of a different composition, so much so that you can no longer call the new substance by the name of what it was-- ruling upon that substance changes too.


Proof/Example 1:

The companions (radyallahu anhum) used to eat a cheese that came from the land of the disbelievers. In that cheese was a part of the calf which was slaughtered by the disbelievers in a way that is not in accordance with Islaam. The companions knew this, but they also knew that the prohibition was upon the calf, what is directly from the calf, and what could be properly called part of the calf; the ruling is not upon that which you cannot identify as part of the calf nor is it called any longer such-and-such part of the calf. This is called istihala.


Proof/Example 2:

Another proof from the Sunnah: The Prophet (sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam) forbade making vinegar out of wine, but he said that if you should come across vinegar that has been made from wine then it is halaal.

Why?

The ruling is upon what the object is, and not what it was. Wine is haraam; vinegar is not, and before the wine became an intoxicant, it was halaal. Why? Because it was fruit before that.


Proof/Example 3:

Allah says in the Qur'an:

"And surely there is a lesson for you in the cattle we give you to drink of what is in their bellies from between the feces and blood, pure milk, wholesome to those who drink it." (16:66)

Allah is putting forth an example for us of how something pure can come from something impure.

And we can also use as proof something that we've already gone over.

The Prophet (sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam) said that when the hide of maitah (the carrion) is tanned, then it is taahir. He (sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam) gave us a method to purify something which was first impure.

Let us examine things we are familiar with: mono and diglycerides, whey, gluten, emulsifiers, gelatin, and whatever else is on the international haraam list. These by-products sometimes come from animals, pigs even, in which case the ruling on the initial substances is that they are haraam. But the initial substances (e.g. fat, marrow, cartilage, etc.) are put through chemical change so that you no longer can even call it "pig fat" or "animal bone" or "skin" or "cartilage", etc. because it is no longer that, hence it is taahir, it is halaal.

What is gelatin? As Oxford dictionary of science defines: "A colorless or pale yellow, water-soluble protein obtained by boiling collagen with water and evaporating the solution. It melts when water is added and dissolves in hot water to form a solution that sets to a gel on cooling." (page 290)

Is this a chemical change or is this not a chemical change? Is it protein any longer? No, it is not.

You are in disbelief so you ask, "But how can it be halaal when it came from something haraam?"

Because of the proofs mentioned above, the ruling is not based upon what it was, the ruling is based upon what it is. A Hanafi scholar, Ibn Abedin gave the example: "the swine which drowns in a salt lake and decomposes and becomes salt itself, is now halaal."

And other Hanafi scholars go on to say: "salt is different from meat and bones. If they become salt, they are salt."

To take the salt example further: salt consists of sodium chloride (NaCl) when together they are the halaal food known as salt, when separated they make up two poisonous substances which are then haraam for consumption.

The ahnaaf (Hanafis) also use as an example the human semen, saying that it is najis, then when it inseminates the egg and becomes a blood clot it is still najis, but when it becomes flesh it is no longer najis. And the ahnaaf are not the only ones who take this position.

The examples are numerous and they extend beyond food: Yesterday a man was kaafir and going towards Hell, today he is Muslim, so what is the ruling upon him? It is based upon what he is today.

We must be careful when we call things haraam because it is a form of thulm (oppression) . Scholars have said that it is worse that you make something halaal to haraam rather than making something haraam to halaal. This deen Allah has made yusr (easy) let us not make it 'usr (hard). Wallahu 'Alim.

End of Dars

IF PEOPLE CAN SPREAD MORE LIGHT ON THIS TOPIC PEOPLE HELP AND ALLAH KNOWS BEST.
 

Mabsoot

Amir
Staff member
wa alaykum salam

Brother, it would be better not to write titles in capitals, or elsewhere in Posts.

Imagine if every person tried writing things in capitals simply to get attention... Do not worry, people do read what is posted, and does not need capitals to be seen.

Jazak Allahu khayr, thank you
 

Perseveranze

Junior Member
Not sure, but I stopped drinking it because I read somewhere that some profits of Coca Cola was going to the Isreal Army, which obvious kill innocent palastinians....

Can someone confirm this?
 

MahyarEL-Prince

Studying Islam...
Coca Cola can turned backwards.. spells out

LA MAKKAH LA MUHAMMAD (SAWS)

..... Thats why you shouldn't drink it, they are clearly our enemies + israeli product.

Sorry to the author of this post, I didn't read it , im very tired...
Salamu alaiakum
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
I found this on snopes.com, an "urban legends" examination website.

http://www.snopes.com/inboxer/outrage/nocoke.asp
Coke Adds Strife
Claim: Coca-Cola has announced that it will be donating four days' worth of income to Israel
Status: False.
Example: [Collected on the Internet, 2002]


I have heard various rumours about the nature of the relationship between Coca-Cola and the State of Israel. Today, I received a text message on my cell phone stating: "NBC states that: the income that Coca-Cola will get in the coming 4 days starting from Monday will be donated to Israel."

Origins: The ongoing Arab-Israeli conflict in the Middle East makes for a precarious business climate, one in which any company doing business in both Israel and other Middle Eastern countries is subject to being denounced by one side as a supporter of the other. Companies dealing in relatively inexpensive, ubiquitous products such as soft drinks or fast food are very visible targets to those who call for boycotts to protest financial support of one side or the other.


American-based companies, in particular, are often the focus of such boycotts, since the USA is not only home to many of the world's most well-known brands but has also been one of the few countries to openly support Click for larger version Israel. McDonald's and Coca-Cola are frequent subjects of boycott calls, the former becoming a target a few years ago when Saudi Arabian McDonald's outlets donated a portion of their proceeds to Palestinian childrens' hospitals, and the latter a current victim due to false claims that they will be "donating four days' worth of income to Israel." (Pepsi is also a member of this short list, with claims — sometimes taken literally — that Pepsi is a 'Jewish product' whose name is an acronym for 'Pay Every Penny to Save Israel' or 'Pay Every Penny to the State of Israel.' As the Associated Press once noted, "Calling Pepsi a 'Jewish product' is ironic, given that Pepsi was one of many multinationals that wouldn't do business in Israel during the 40-year Arab commercial boycott of the Jewish state.")


Lately a series of graphics employing Coca-Cola imagery (like the one to the right of this text, which is itself a deception within a deception, as it uses a controversial photograph of a Jewish student who was mistakenly identified as a Palestinian) has been circulated to garner support for an Arab boycott of American companies such as Coca-Cola (at least one such image, which depicts the Dome of the Rock emblazoned with a Coca-Cola logo, has caused an uproar among Muslims who have mistaken it for a bona fide Coca-Cola advertisement), lending support to the unfounded rumor that Coca-Cola will be donating four days' worth of income to Israel. It's hard to imagine that this rumor could be anything but a deliberate lie concocted to smear an American-based company that does business in both Israel and Middle Eastern countries, as (unlike the case of the McDonald's brouhaha mentioned above) no Coke-related business is currently engaged in any sponsorship that could reasonably be misunderstood as constituting a financial "donation" to the state of Israel.



As The Coca-Cola Company itself has stated:

The Coca-Cola Company does not support or oppose political or religious causes and does not take a stance on issues that do not directly affect the soft drink industry.

The Coca-Cola Company operates worldwide in nearly 200 countries and territories with different cultures, political systems, religions and histories. People from all around the world own shares in The Coca-Cola Company, and the company employs people from many different backgrounds and nationalities. Our partners who bottle, distribute and sell our products are local business people. They hire people in their local markets. We cannot and do not take the side of one country over another in any dispute.
It's unfortunate that the incredible power of the Internet is being misused to spread false information.


Moreover, since Ramallah is home to a Coca-Cola bottling facility that employs about 400 local residents (and indirectly creates employment for hundreds more), and Coca-Cola industries throughout the Middle East are operated as local businesses, any boycott of Coca-Cola in Middle Eastern countries is likely to cause more monetary harm to Arabs and Palestinians than it is to Americans or Israelis.


Unfortunately, the maxim that the first casualty in war is truth still holds sway.


Last updated: 2 December 2007
Urban Legends Reference Pages © 1995-2011 by Barbara and David P. Mikkelson.
This material may not be reproduced without permission.
snopes and the snopes.com logo are registered service marks of snopes.com.
I also found this on the Coca-Cola's website since it mentioned Ramallah.

Middle East Rumors
Rumor: Boycotting Coca-Cola makes a statement against America and American (foreign) policies
Our Response: The Coca-Cola Company and our products are often regarded as American. But the fact is that The Coca-Cola Company is a truly international company, operating worldwide in more than 200 countries. The Coca-Cola business in each country is a local business. Coca-Cola beverages are produced, sold and distributed by authorized local bottling partners, who own and operate bottling plants and sales/distribution centers, employing one million local citizens - 90% outside the United States, and nearly all of them citizens of other countries.

For example, in the Palestinian Authority, The National Beverage Company, our Company's authorized local bottling partner, is an independent, privately held company, managed by local Palestinian businesspeople, who operate a Coca-Cola bottling facility located in Ramallah and distribution centers in Gaza, Hebron and Nablus. The National Beverage Company employs 200 local people and generates employment for hundreds of others in related industries. Throughout the Middle East we operate as a local business, run by local people and employing more than 20,000 local people, with local shareowners.

The Coca-Cola business is one of the most diverse organizations in the world, operating across a wide spectrum of economic, political and religious environments. As a business, Coca-Cola has neither the mandate to support nor an interest in supporting individual countries, governments or political or religious causes.

As everybody else, we are deeply touched by the human side of the situation in the Middle East. Given the local nature of our business, we believe that calls for boycotts of our products are not the appropriate way to further any causes, as they primarily hurt the local economy, local businesses and local citizens. Spreading such allegations is an attempt to exploit a delicate situation in the Middle East.
 

MahyarEL-Prince

Studying Islam...
Don't drink coca cola simply because when you turn it around it says LA MAKKAH LA MUHAMMAD (SAWS)

How dare you drink it? it's disgusting filth. Don't support the kuffar who hate islam and muslims
 

Hasan al Amriki

New Member
:salam2:

Alright brothers and sisters, the conclusion is this: the reason why we should boycott a company (in this case, Coca Cola) should ONLY be for the Sake of Pleasing Allah (SWT), and for no other reason.

So now, we have two differant sources (that we can use for evidence): (1.) From Inminds and (2.) From the Company's Website.

So what should WE do in this situation?

We should:

1.) Show the two evidences to reliable Muftis/Ulemah (and who are Righteous, etc.) and ask them to give a Fatwa/State their Opinion (based on the evidences).

2.) If we can't do the above, then we should study the evidences (from the two differant opinions, the one from Inminds and the one from Coca Cola), and make a decision based upon what we feel is the best decision to make.

(it's also good if we use more sources for evidence, not just Inminds & Coca Cola).

(P.S. My words might have been unclear (above) and so please forgive me brothers and sisters And since I'm fasting today, I'm feeling a bit light-headed and dizzy).

:wasalam:
 

JenGiove

Junior Member
So what should WE do in this situation?

We should:

1.) Show the two evidences to reliable Muftis/Ulemah (and who are Righteous, etc.) and ask them to give a Fatwa/State their Opinion (based on the evidences).

2.) If we can't do the above, then we should study the evidences (from the two differant opinions, the one from Inminds and the one from Coca Cola), and make a decision based upon what we feel is the best decision to make.

:salam2: Ask and ye shall receive... :)

http://www.islamqa.com/en/ref/107654/coca cola

Ruling on drinking Coca Cola​

I have been told by one of my friend that drinking coke is haram because if we see it in mirror the way its been written it becomes "LA ALLAH LA MUHAMMED" witch means no ALLAH no Muhammad, and she says who ever drinks it is not a Muslim, please kindly let me know how true it is, and is it really haram or not, thanks.

Praise be to Allaah.


What has been said about Coca Cola, that there is written on it the words “La Allaah la Muhammad” or “La Muhammad la Makkah” and that this can be seen by looking at the writing in a mirror, is not true, so there is no shar’i ruling that follows from that.​


You should keep away from over exaggerations and illusions that have no basis.​


Any food or drink that is proven to be harmful is haraam, but if there is no such proof then the basic ruling is that they are halaal, and they cannot be deemed haraam on the basis of mere conjecture and speculation.​


But if the company that produces it is hostile to Islam and supports its enemies, then it should be boycotted for that reason.​

And Allaah knows best.

Isn't amazing what you find on the internet? :)
 

Tahir484

New Member
Assalaamualaikum.
I think there is no need of any fatwa or so because these softdrinks are just carbonated water,it is of least use to drink them( i think wastage of money) so better to avoid them and for other alternatives
 

hayat84

I'm not what you believe
:salam2:
It happened that I drank coka cola in a muslim shop.so,why shouldn't we drink it because it come from those who hate muslims??if someone dislike drinks with gaz,it doesn't obligately mean that it's haram.coka cola or whatelse mark of drinks with gaz,never harmed me,above all if accompained with a tasty and parfumed pizza!in the end ,if in coka cola there is the subliminal message which denies Allah and His prophet,what I suppose is that the "power"of the subliminal message gets annihiled from the moment we realize the real message of the product,then coka cola will become only something with gaz to drink:it won't be coka cola at all,because coka cola is just the trade mark.
 
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