duncan_bayne
Junior Member
By mentioning slavery, I was merely trying to provide a concrete example to illustrate my original question which was:
"... how is it possible for Muslims to reform Islam to reject practices carried out by Mohammed during his life, and approved (tacitly or explicitly) in the Quran itself?"
I raised slavery as a straightforward example of Mohammed doing something that is endorsed in the Koran, but that nowadays is recognized as immoral and is treated as a criminal act.
Some critics of Islam have argued that it is simply impossible for Muslims to criticize slave owners because Mohammed himself was one and endorsed the practice, and slavery is permitted (albeit under specific circumstances) in the Koran. Their argument is that an outright ban on all types of slavery would be impossible in the context of Sharia.
What I'm hoping for is for someone here to refute that assertion - to show that despite that fact that Mohammed owned slaves, and despite the fact that slavery is permitted within the Koran, it is possible for Islamic authorities to completely reject slavery.
In the Hadith of Bukhari's[1] it is said that that Muslim warriors took female slaves from conquered populations and raped them. Do you dispute that specific account, or the providence of that Hadith in general?
[1]http://www.muslimhope.com/BukhariHadiths.htm
"... how is it possible for Muslims to reform Islam to reject practices carried out by Mohammed during his life, and approved (tacitly or explicitly) in the Quran itself?"
I raised slavery as a straightforward example of Mohammed doing something that is endorsed in the Koran, but that nowadays is recognized as immoral and is treated as a criminal act.
Some critics of Islam have argued that it is simply impossible for Muslims to criticize slave owners because Mohammed himself was one and endorsed the practice, and slavery is permitted (albeit under specific circumstances) in the Koran. Their argument is that an outright ban on all types of slavery would be impossible in the context of Sharia.
What I'm hoping for is for someone here to refute that assertion - to show that despite that fact that Mohammed owned slaves, and despite the fact that slavery is permitted within the Koran, it is possible for Islamic authorities to completely reject slavery.
Slavery was never initiated by Muslims.
In the Hadith of Bukhari's[1] it is said that that Muslim warriors took female slaves from conquered populations and raped them. Do you dispute that specific account, or the providence of that Hadith in general?
[1]http://www.muslimhope.com/BukhariHadiths.htm